Hi smart people,
I am confused about how these two IFRS questions are treated differently:
On December 31, Year 1, an entity adopted the IFRS revaluation model for reporting it's long-term assets and revalued a patent with a carrying value of $85,000 and a 10 year life to it's fair value of $75,000. On December 31, Year 2, before any amortization, the entity determined that the patent had a fair value of $90,000. In it's December 31, Year 2 financial statements, the entity will report a revaluation gain of:
Answer is: $10,000 on I/S and $5,000 in OCI
How is that treatment different than this:
A company reporting under IFRS holds a position in BE Corporation bonds that is classified as AFS. In the previous year, the company recorded an impairment loss on these bonds. In the current year, the company reversed a portion of these impariment losses. How should the reversal be recorded?
The correct answer is that the entire reversal is recorded in current year income.
FAR- 81
REG- 81
BEC- Aug 22, 2016
AUD- TBD