- This topic has 2,358 replies, 134 voices, and was last updated 9 years, 5 months ago by
lolo.
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March 18, 2016 at 4:43 am #200895
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April 17, 2016 at 6:45 pm #764331
mckan514wParticipanteleuthromania- at least the way I read it I think because they each received the inventory from outside parties So Dunn Debits 175 to its inventory and Lamm Debits 250 to their inventory so when you combine you are adding them.
and they ask me why I drink...
FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
BEC- 8/11
AUD- 9/2April 17, 2016 at 6:46 pm #764332
mckan514wParticipantto expand I think the DR/CR part only applies to the first part of the question concerning the intracompany transfers- so you have those transactions between the two and then after that you have them both purchasing inventory from the outside…
and they ask me why I drink...
FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
BEC- 8/11
AUD- 9/2April 17, 2016 at 8:23 pm #764333
AnonymousInactiveOk, thanks! That's what I thought initially too but just wanted to make sure that was the case.
April 17, 2016 at 8:33 pm #764334
pickanickenParticipantQuestion about Gov. Accounting. The statement of net position formula is (Assets + Deferred Outflows of Resources) – (Liabilities + Deferred Inflows of Resources) = Net Position
I don't understand why it is assets + deferred outflows and liabilities + deferred inflows…. In my head I keep thinking it should be assets + deferred inflows and liabilities + deferred outflows. Can someone explain?
REG - 81
BEC - 83
AUD - 86
FAR - 78 (Done!)April 17, 2016 at 8:49 pm #764335
Spartans92ParticipantDeferred Outflows is treated like Prepaid. While Deferred Inflows is like unearned. That is why outflow goes with assets and liabilities go with inflows.
BEC- PASS
April 17, 2016 at 8:50 pm #764336
pickanickenParticipantGot it. Thank you!
REG - 81
BEC - 83
AUD - 86
FAR - 78 (Done!)April 17, 2016 at 10:01 pm #764337
Claudia408ParticipantI know this is an easy calculation but I don't understand why should I divide by 4 two years into the vesting period? Or does someone have a different way to calculate compensation expense with forfeitures?
A restricted stock award was granted at the beginning of 2005 calling for 3,000 shares of stock to be awarded to executives at the beginning of 2009. The fair value of one option was $20 at grant date. During 2007, 100 shares were forfeited because an executive left the firm.
What amount of compensation expense is recognized for 2007?
Answer: Total compensation expense at grant date is $60,000 (3,000 x $20). The service period is four years ($20×5 – $20×8). Annual expense recognized is $15,000 ($60,000/4).
Through $20×6, a total of $30,000 of compensation expense is recognized. After the forfeit, only 2,900 shares remain to be awarded.Annual compensation expense for the remaining two years before considering forfeited shares is therefore $14,500 [(2,900 x $20)/4].
The expense for the two years associated with the 100 shares forfeited is $1,000 [(100 x $20)/2].
For $20×7, subtracting the reversal of the $1,000 yields $13,500 as the final amount of expense to be recognized.
BEC - 75 (3x)
AUD - 78 (3x)
REG - 67, 66, Aug 1
FAR - 54, Sept 8April 17, 2016 at 10:45 pm #764338
mckan514wParticipantClaudia- I worked this one backwards— so at the end of 2007 when the employee left they had recognized $1,500 (100 options @ 20= 2,000/4= 500 a year * 3 years of service- = 1,500
So then you recognition on the total is 3,000*20=60,000 / 4= 15,000 a year less the 1,500 for the 100 options years 1-3… gives you 13,500
and they ask me why I drink...
FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
BEC- 8/11
AUD- 9/2April 18, 2016 at 3:00 am #764339
Spartans92ParticipantRoss Co. pays all salaried employees on a Monday for the five-day workweek ended the previous Friday. The last payroll recorded for the year ended December 31, Year 2, was for the week ended December 25, Year 2. The payroll for the week ended January 1, Year 3, included regular weekly salaries of $80,000 and vacation pay of $25,000 for vacation time earned in Year 2 not taken by December 31, Year 2. Ross had accrued a liability of $20,000 for vacation pay at December 31, Year 1. In its December 31, Year 2, balance sheet, what amount should Ross report as accrued salary and vacation pay?
NVM I figured why it is 4/5… I literally had to draw a calendar out and figure the dates. Jesus. But feel free to work this one out 🙂 The wording is what gets me and I have to slowly work things out..this is for sure gonna kill me on the exam.
BEC- PASS
April 18, 2016 at 3:38 am #764340
Reasonably AssuredParticipantHi! I'm new to the website. How does this study group work? I'm currently studying FAR and it is not kind 🙁
April 18, 2016 at 3:54 am #764341
Spartans92ParticipantWelcome Reasonably Assured!! Also, Good Luck studying, it sure is tough! But this study group/website in general is for us to help each other out. Feel free to post questions on here when you get stuck or need help with anything. Also feel free to vent when needed LOL think we need to release some stress from time to time and probably no one but CPA candidates will understand.
BEC- PASS
April 18, 2016 at 4:55 am #764342
OnedayParticipantNot from a mcq problem. Or have not yet seen a problem about this.
Correction of error is supposed to be restated (retroactive). How about automatically corrected inventory? If the inventory error is found on third year (when it is automatically corrected) should there be only a disclosure or restated?
What about when it was found on second year? Retroactive?
Thanks!
April 18, 2016 at 10:41 am #764343
mckan514wParticipantSpartan- this question literally PI@@ED me off to no end… glad you figured it out- the wording is what is killing me on these questions.
Reasonably Assured welcome and good luck.
and they ask me why I drink...
FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
BEC- 8/11
AUD- 9/2April 18, 2016 at 12:41 pm #764344
LidisParticipantGood morning
I need help answer this questionSea Manufacturing Corp is constructing a new factory building. During the current calendar year, Sea made the following payments to the construction company
January 1 – 1,000,000
December 31 – 1,000,000Sea has an 8%. Three year construction loan of 3.,000,000. What is the amount of interest costs that Sea may capitalize during the current year?
$0
$80,000
$160,000
$240,000
The answer is bThank you
LidisApril 18, 2016 at 1:12 pm #764345
mckan514wParticipantFor capitalized interest you take the weighted average of interest payments and then the interest rate– which here is just 1- 1,0000 (because the second one was taken on Dec 31st)– so 1,000,000 *(12/12)= 1,000,000 (.08)
and they ask me why I drink...
FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
BEC- 8/11
AUD- 9/2 -
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