FAR Study Group Q2 2016 - Page 45

Viewing 15 replies - 661 through 675 (of 2,358 total)
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    Replies
  • #764331
    mckan514w
    Participant

    eleuthromania- at least the way I read it I think because they each received the inventory from outside parties So Dunn Debits 175 to its inventory and Lamm Debits 250 to their inventory so when you combine you are adding them.

    and they ask me why I drink...

    FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
    REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
    BEC- 8/11
    AUD- 9/2

    #764332
    mckan514w
    Participant

    to expand I think the DR/CR part only applies to the first part of the question concerning the intracompany transfers- so you have those transactions between the two and then after that you have them both purchasing inventory from the outside…

    and they ask me why I drink...

    FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
    REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
    BEC- 8/11
    AUD- 9/2

    #764333
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    @mckan514w

    Ok, thanks! That's what I thought initially too but just wanted to make sure that was the case.

    #764334
    pickanicken
    Participant

    Question about Gov. Accounting. The statement of net position formula is (Assets + Deferred Outflows of Resources) – (Liabilities + Deferred Inflows of Resources) = Net Position

    I don't understand why it is assets + deferred outflows and liabilities + deferred inflows…. In my head I keep thinking it should be assets + deferred inflows and liabilities + deferred outflows. Can someone explain?

    REG - 81
    BEC - 83
    AUD - 86
    FAR - 78 (Done!)

    #764335
    Spartans92
    Participant

    Deferred Outflows is treated like Prepaid. While Deferred Inflows is like unearned. That is why outflow goes with assets and liabilities go with inflows.

    BEC- PASS

    #764336
    pickanicken
    Participant

    Got it. Thank you!

    REG - 81
    BEC - 83
    AUD - 86
    FAR - 78 (Done!)

    #764337
    Claudia408
    Participant

    I know this is an easy calculation but I don't understand why should I divide by 4 two years into the vesting period? Or does someone have a different way to calculate compensation expense with forfeitures?

    A restricted stock award was granted at the beginning of 2005 calling for 3,000 shares of stock to be awarded to executives at the beginning of 2009. The fair value of one option was $20 at grant date. During 2007, 100 shares were forfeited because an executive left the firm.

    What amount of compensation expense is recognized for 2007?

    Answer: Total compensation expense at grant date is $60,000 (3,000 x $20). The service period is four years ($20×5 – $20×8). Annual expense recognized is $15,000 ($60,000/4).
    Through $20×6, a total of $30,000 of compensation expense is recognized. After the forfeit, only 2,900 shares remain to be awarded.

    Annual compensation expense for the remaining two years before considering forfeited shares is therefore $14,500 [(2,900 x $20)/4].

    The expense for the two years associated with the 100 shares forfeited is $1,000 [(100 x $20)/2].

    For $20×7, subtracting the reversal of the $1,000 yields $13,500 as the final amount of expense to be recognized.

    BEC - 75 (3x)
    AUD - 78 (3x)
    REG - 67, 66, Aug 1
    FAR - 54, Sept 8

    #764338
    mckan514w
    Participant

    Claudia- I worked this one backwards— so at the end of 2007 when the employee left they had recognized $1,500 (100 options @ 20= 2,000/4= 500 a year * 3 years of service- = 1,500

    So then you recognition on the total is 3,000*20=60,000 / 4= 15,000 a year less the 1,500 for the 100 options years 1-3… gives you 13,500

    and they ask me why I drink...

    FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
    REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
    BEC- 8/11
    AUD- 9/2

    #764339
    Spartans92
    Participant

    Ross Co. pays all salaried employees on a Monday for the five-day workweek ended the previous Friday. The last payroll recorded for the year ended December 31, Year 2, was for the week ended December 25, Year 2. The payroll for the week ended January 1, Year 3, included regular weekly salaries of $80,000 and vacation pay of $25,000 for vacation time earned in Year 2 not taken by December 31, Year 2. Ross had accrued a liability of $20,000 for vacation pay at December 31, Year 1. In its December 31, Year 2, balance sheet, what amount should Ross report as accrued salary and vacation pay?

    NVM I figured why it is 4/5… I literally had to draw a calendar out and figure the dates. Jesus. But feel free to work this one out 🙂 The wording is what gets me and I have to slowly work things out..this is for sure gonna kill me on the exam.

    BEC- PASS

    #764340
    Reasonably Assured
    Participant

    Hi! I'm new to the website. How does this study group work? I'm currently studying FAR and it is not kind 🙁

    #764341
    Spartans92
    Participant

    Welcome Reasonably Assured!! Also, Good Luck studying, it sure is tough! But this study group/website in general is for us to help each other out. Feel free to post questions on here when you get stuck or need help with anything. Also feel free to vent when needed LOL think we need to release some stress from time to time and probably no one but CPA candidates will understand.

    BEC- PASS

    #764342
    Oneday
    Participant

    Not from a mcq problem. Or have not yet seen a problem about this.

    Correction of error is supposed to be restated (retroactive). How about automatically corrected inventory? If the inventory error is found on third year (when it is automatically corrected) should there be only a disclosure or restated?

    What about when it was found on second year? Retroactive?

    Thanks!

    #764343
    mckan514w
    Participant

    Spartan- this question literally PI@@ED me off to no end… glad you figured it out- the wording is what is killing me on these questions.

    Reasonably Assured welcome and good luck.

    and they ask me why I drink...

    FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
    REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
    BEC- 8/11
    AUD- 9/2

    #764344
    Lidis
    Participant

    Good morning
    I need help answer this question

    Sea Manufacturing Corp is constructing a new factory building. During the current calendar year, Sea made the following payments to the construction company
    January 1 – 1,000,000
    December 31 – 1,000,000

    Sea has an 8%. Three year construction loan of 3.,000,000. What is the amount of interest costs that Sea may capitalize during the current year?
    $0
    $80,000
    $160,000
    $240,000
    The answer is b

    Thank you
    Lidis

    #764345
    mckan514w
    Participant

    For capitalized interest you take the weighted average of interest payments and then the interest rate– which here is just 1- 1,0000 (because the second one was taken on Dec 31st)– so 1,000,000 *(12/12)= 1,000,000 (.08)

    and they ask me why I drink...

    FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
    REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
    BEC- 8/11
    AUD- 9/2

Viewing 15 replies - 661 through 675 (of 2,358 total)
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