McKan… accrued intest is paid on the interest payment date
So if the interest dates are 1/1 and 7/1 and you acquired the bond on 4/1, you have 1/1-4/1 accrued interest when you purchase the bond.
Carrying Value= PV of Principal + PV of Interest Payment Annuity + 1/1-4/1 accrued interest
Therefore, you will have a higher interest expense on the interst payment date
Date Coupon PMT Int Exp Amort CV
7/1 10,000 8,000 2,000 Prev. CV +- 2000
On the amortization table above, I just created random values. But, the Int. Exp. will be higher with accrued interest because the int. exp is yield/market rate * Carrying value. Per the formula above, the carrying value is higher because of this accrued interest. Therefore, the int exp. will be higher. This is how the accrued interest “comes out”. Through a higher interest expense.
That was probably very confusing. My mind works in weird ways. Hope that helps a little!
P.S. I just edited this
FAR- 81
REG- 81
BEC- Aug 22, 2016
AUD- TBD