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March 18, 2016 at 4:43 am #200895
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April 12, 2016 at 12:19 am #764091
Spartans92ParticipantThanks Kanwal and Just3 for bringing these concepts up. I vaguely recall these but it is good learning experience to see how much I actually remember at least not drawing complete blanks. 🙂
BEC- PASS
April 12, 2016 at 1:50 am #764092
KJParticipantJust want to clarify that I am on right track with this. Pension expense is overfunded if FV of plan assets exceeds PBO/ABO and underfunded if PBO/ABO exceeds FV of plan assets.
FAR - August 2016
AUD - September 2016
REG - October 2016
BEC - November 2016Remember: "Everything should be made as simple as possible, but not simpler." - Albert Einstein
April 12, 2016 at 2:05 am #764093
Just3LettersParticipantKanwal,
I don't know if you should think about it as the “Pension Expense” is over/underfunded. Rather, the Pension is over/under funded.
Pension is Overfunded if the Fair value of plan assets > PBO
Pension is Underfunded if the Fair Value of plan assets < PBOThe pension expense is the result of SIR AGE
FAR- 81
REG- 81
BEC- Aug 22, 2016
AUD- TBDApril 12, 2016 at 2:13 am #764094
KJParticipantThanks Just3letters!!
FAR - August 2016
AUD - September 2016
REG - October 2016
BEC - November 2016Remember: "Everything should be made as simple as possible, but not simpler." - Albert Einstein
April 12, 2016 at 3:06 am #764095
Spartans92ParticipantIts actually very straight forward Kanwal. Another way to think is simply how much money you have in your pocket vs how much you owe. You have 10 bucks but you owe 20 you are underfunded or short. I think just understanding that will make everything much more simple as the terminology may not be familiar (Plan Asset, PBO etc).
BEC- PASS
April 12, 2016 at 4:00 am #764096
KJParticipantYes, you are right Spartans92. It makes much more easier!! I nailed all the PBO, Plan asset, under/over funded questions 🙂
FAR - August 2016
AUD - September 2016
REG - October 2016
BEC - November 2016Remember: "Everything should be made as simple as possible, but not simpler." - Albert Einstein
April 12, 2016 at 4:04 am #764097
KJParticipantNinja mnemonic for calculating pension expense was PRIUS which also helped. Need to make some own mnemonic for FAR. I took audit class last year and our professor used lot of mnemonic of his own and some funny one too, made it lot easier. I guess when I take AUD those will help!!
FAR - August 2016
AUD - September 2016
REG - October 2016
BEC - November 2016Remember: "Everything should be made as simple as possible, but not simpler." - Albert Einstein
April 12, 2016 at 4:09 am #764098
Just3LettersParticipantOh my god I'm so tired. I was just staring at this super easy diluted EPS problem for about 3 minutes trying to understand how to read. I quit. See you all tomorrow 🙂
FAR- 81
REG- 81
BEC- Aug 22, 2016
AUD- TBDApril 12, 2016 at 9:17 am #764099
mckan514wParticipantThanks 3letters! Hope you got some good sleep!
I really like the Ninja “PRIUS” mnemonic for pension- much better than Rogers which was confusing me- and Spartans- your explanation is excellent thanks! Have a great and productive day guys!and they ask me why I drink...
FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
BEC- 8/11
AUD- 9/2April 12, 2016 at 1:35 pm #764100
Spartans92ParticipantBecker uses sir age. I think it's pretty helpful as well. Most times we get use to whatever we learn first and learning a new way may be harder, at least for me.
BEC- PASS
April 12, 2016 at 3:57 pm #764101
Operation_CPAParticipantWhat is the best way to approach these problems with G/L under IFRS? Is there a set way to look at this? Is my logic to solve correct? Trying to apply it for others in the same scenario but I want to make sure the way I am doing it is not just luck.
On December 31, Year 1, an entity adopted the IFRS revaluation model for reporting its long-term assets and revalued a patent with a carrying value of $85,000 and a 10 year life to its fair value of $75,000. On December 31, Year 2, before recording any amortization, the entity determined that the patent had a fair value of $90,000. In its December 31, Year 2 financial statements, the entity will report a revaluation gain of:
…CV………………..FMV
85,000…….>……..75,000= (10,000) loss
Then compare FMV's
…FMV………………..FMV
85,000…….<……..90,000+Gain 5,000
Answer: 10,000 on the income statement and $5,000 in other comprehensive income.
Same logic with this??
On December 31, Year 1, Classic Company revalued a patent under IFRS. On that date, the patent had a carrying value of $250,000, a fair value of $200,000, and a remaining useful life of 5 years. On December 31, Year 2, the patent's fair value was $175,000. In its December 31, Year 2 financial statements, Classic will report a current period revaluation:
Thanks!
April 12, 2016 at 4:35 pm #764102
Just3LettersParticipantHey Operation,
I was about to give you a confident answer that you are doing it right.
However, now I'm confused as to why you are not taking amortization in the first problem.
If you revalue down to $75,000 at end year 1 (I agree that there is a 10k I/S loss here), then you would have a CV of 75,000 MINUS amortization for 10 years of 7,500 at the end of year 2. Therefore, the CV should be 67,500 and there should actually be a gain of 22,500.
Somebody help us! I probably just caused more grief here so sorry about that Operation…
FAR- 81
REG- 81
BEC- Aug 22, 2016
AUD- TBDApril 12, 2016 at 5:02 pm #764103
Just3LettersParticipantIn a Statement of Cash Flows, If used equipment is sold at a gain, the amount shown as cash inflow from investing activities equals the carrying amount of the equipment:
A. Plus Gain less Tax attributable to gain
B. Plus the Gain
C. With No addition or subtraction
D. Plus both the gain and the Tax attributable to gainCorrect Answer: B.
Why would you include the gain in investing if you also have to subtract the gain in operating? I get that the gain is part of the cash proceeds from sale, but do you really include gain in both operating and investing?
Thanks!
FAR- 81
REG- 81
BEC- Aug 22, 2016
AUD- TBDApril 12, 2016 at 5:04 pm #764104
mckan514wParticipantAmortization shouldn't play any part of it- you are revaluating the impairment- remember you can write an asset back up to the amount of the impairment loss the amount over this goes to revaluation in OCI so in year X1 you recognized a 10,000 loss. Year two you recognize a 10,000 gain income statement to reverse the loss with the 5 going to OCI. The adjustment is taken directly against the carry amount of the asset and will create a new amortization basis. However this basis has nothing to do with the recognition of the gain the following year as you are simply basing that on you wrote asset carried at X down 10 you add it back up to 10 with the remainder going to OCI….
Hope this helps and I explained it without making it more confusing 🙂
and they ask me why I drink...
FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
BEC- 8/11
AUD- 9/2April 12, 2016 at 6:02 pm #764105
Just3LettersParticipantThanks Mckan,
That makes total sense now!
FAR- 81
REG- 81
BEC- Aug 22, 2016
AUD- TBD -
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