FAR Study Group Q2 2016 - Page 29

Viewing 15 replies - 421 through 435 (of 2,358 total)
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  • #764091
    Spartans92
    Participant

    Thanks Kanwal and Just3 for bringing these concepts up. I vaguely recall these but it is good learning experience to see how much I actually remember at least not drawing complete blanks. 🙂

    BEC- PASS

    #764092
    KJ
    Participant

    Just want to clarify that I am on right track with this. Pension expense is overfunded if FV of plan assets exceeds PBO/ABO and underfunded if PBO/ABO exceeds FV of plan assets.

    FAR - August 2016
    AUD - September 2016
    REG - October 2016
    BEC - November 2016

    Remember: "Everything should be made as simple as possible, but not simpler." - Albert Einstein

    #764093
    Just3Letters
    Participant

    Kanwal,

    I don't know if you should think about it as the “Pension Expense” is over/underfunded. Rather, the Pension is over/under funded.

    Pension is Overfunded if the Fair value of plan assets > PBO
    Pension is Underfunded if the Fair Value of plan assets < PBO

    The pension expense is the result of SIR AGE

    FAR- 81
    REG- 81
    BEC- Aug 22, 2016
    AUD- TBD

    #764094
    KJ
    Participant

    Thanks Just3letters!!

    FAR - August 2016
    AUD - September 2016
    REG - October 2016
    BEC - November 2016

    Remember: "Everything should be made as simple as possible, but not simpler." - Albert Einstein

    #764095
    Spartans92
    Participant

    Its actually very straight forward Kanwal. Another way to think is simply how much money you have in your pocket vs how much you owe. You have 10 bucks but you owe 20 you are underfunded or short. I think just understanding that will make everything much more simple as the terminology may not be familiar (Plan Asset, PBO etc).

    BEC- PASS

    #764096
    KJ
    Participant

    Yes, you are right Spartans92. It makes much more easier!! I nailed all the PBO, Plan asset, under/over funded questions 🙂

    FAR - August 2016
    AUD - September 2016
    REG - October 2016
    BEC - November 2016

    Remember: "Everything should be made as simple as possible, but not simpler." - Albert Einstein

    #764097
    KJ
    Participant

    Ninja mnemonic for calculating pension expense was PRIUS which also helped. Need to make some own mnemonic for FAR. I took audit class last year and our professor used lot of mnemonic of his own and some funny one too, made it lot easier. I guess when I take AUD those will help!!

    FAR - August 2016
    AUD - September 2016
    REG - October 2016
    BEC - November 2016

    Remember: "Everything should be made as simple as possible, but not simpler." - Albert Einstein

    #764098
    Just3Letters
    Participant

    Oh my god I'm so tired. I was just staring at this super easy diluted EPS problem for about 3 minutes trying to understand how to read. I quit. See you all tomorrow 🙂

    FAR- 81
    REG- 81
    BEC- Aug 22, 2016
    AUD- TBD

    #764099
    mckan514w
    Participant

    Thanks 3letters! Hope you got some good sleep!
    I really like the Ninja “PRIUS” mnemonic for pension- much better than Rogers which was confusing me- and Spartans- your explanation is excellent thanks! Have a great and productive day guys!

    and they ask me why I drink...

    FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
    REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
    BEC- 8/11
    AUD- 9/2

    #764100
    Spartans92
    Participant

    Becker uses sir age. I think it's pretty helpful as well. Most times we get use to whatever we learn first and learning a new way may be harder, at least for me.

    BEC- PASS

    #764101
    Operation_CPA
    Participant

    What is the best way to approach these problems with G/L under IFRS? Is there a set way to look at this? Is my logic to solve correct? Trying to apply it for others in the same scenario but I want to make sure the way I am doing it is not just luck.

    On December 31, Year 1, an entity adopted the IFRS revaluation model for reporting its long-term assets and revalued a patent with a carrying value of $85,000 and a 10 year life to its fair value of $75,000. On December 31, Year 2, before recording any amortization, the entity determined that the patent had a fair value of $90,000. In its December 31, Year 2 financial statements, the entity will report a revaluation gain of:

    …CV………………..FMV
    85,000…….>……..75,000

    = (10,000) loss

    Then compare FMV's

    …FMV………………..FMV
    85,000…….<……..90,000

    +Gain 5,000

    Answer: 10,000 on the income statement and $5,000 in other comprehensive income.

    Same logic with this??

    On December 31, Year 1, Classic Company revalued a patent under IFRS. On that date, the patent had a carrying value of $250,000, a fair value of $200,000, and a remaining useful life of 5 years. On December 31, Year 2, the patent's fair value was $175,000. In its December 31, Year 2 financial statements, Classic will report a current period revaluation:

    Thanks!

    #764102
    Just3Letters
    Participant

    Hey Operation,

    I was about to give you a confident answer that you are doing it right.

    However, now I'm confused as to why you are not taking amortization in the first problem.

    If you revalue down to $75,000 at end year 1 (I agree that there is a 10k I/S loss here), then you would have a CV of 75,000 MINUS amortization for 10 years of 7,500 at the end of year 2. Therefore, the CV should be 67,500 and there should actually be a gain of 22,500.

    Somebody help us! I probably just caused more grief here so sorry about that Operation…

    FAR- 81
    REG- 81
    BEC- Aug 22, 2016
    AUD- TBD

    #764103
    Just3Letters
    Participant

    In a Statement of Cash Flows, If used equipment is sold at a gain, the amount shown as cash inflow from investing activities equals the carrying amount of the equipment:

    A. Plus Gain less Tax attributable to gain
    B. Plus the Gain
    C. With No addition or subtraction
    D. Plus both the gain and the Tax attributable to gain

    Correct Answer: B.

    Why would you include the gain in investing if you also have to subtract the gain in operating? I get that the gain is part of the cash proceeds from sale, but do you really include gain in both operating and investing?

    Thanks!

    FAR- 81
    REG- 81
    BEC- Aug 22, 2016
    AUD- TBD

    #764104
    mckan514w
    Participant

    Amortization shouldn't play any part of it- you are revaluating the impairment- remember you can write an asset back up to the amount of the impairment loss the amount over this goes to revaluation in OCI so in year X1 you recognized a 10,000 loss. Year two you recognize a 10,000 gain income statement to reverse the loss with the 5 going to OCI. The adjustment is taken directly against the carry amount of the asset and will create a new amortization basis. However this basis has nothing to do with the recognition of the gain the following year as you are simply basing that on you wrote asset carried at X down 10 you add it back up to 10 with the remainder going to OCI….

    Hope this helps and I explained it without making it more confusing 🙂

    and they ask me why I drink...

    FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
    REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
    BEC- 8/11
    AUD- 9/2

    #764105
    Just3Letters
    Participant

    Thanks Mckan,

    That makes total sense now!

    FAR- 81
    REG- 81
    BEC- Aug 22, 2016
    AUD- TBD

Viewing 15 replies - 421 through 435 (of 2,358 total)
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