I'm confused on Net Operating Loss Carry-forwards. Several questions gave a similar explanation to the one below in the justification of the correct answer:
U.S. GAAP does permit recognition of “net operating loss carry forward” in year of loss, but the deferred asset should be reduced by a “valuation allowance” based on the “more likely or not” test of expected realization. In this case, there does not appear to be enough evidence to support realization. Unless evidence is provided to the contrary, it is generally assumed that an NOL in the current period means that there is a greater than 50% chance that there will be NOLs in future periods. Therefore, a “valuation allowance” should reduce the deferred asset to zero, and result in no increase in net income. Accounting recognition is not given to offers to sell assets because a completed transaction has not occurred.
My issue: If a NOL now means I have to re-value my carry-forward as zero, what happens if GAAP is wrong and I DO earn a taxable profit in one of the next 20 years? Is that carry-forward now unavailable because I revalued it, or can I reverse the valuation allowance and use the benefit?
Anybody know?
Thanks!!