FAR Study Group Q1 2017 - Page 114

Viewing 15 replies - 1,696 through 1,710 (of 2,502 total)
  • Author
    Replies
  • #1500607
    norseman88
    Participant

    That dude is joking 100%. No way he would be dumb enough to mention the center, date and time if he actually had an appointment.

    #1500609
    cmrn89
    Participant

    norseman88 – ehhhh he very well could be..

    #1500616
    GiniC
    Participant

    There are SOOOOOO many ways to “weed out” people who don't belong in this profession! Folks in here clearly have the dedication and perseverence to be a credit!

    Now to go back over (ugh) interperiod tax allocation. 🙁

    #1500619
    norseman88
    Participant

    @CMRN89 LOL! He's a business man!

    #1500634
    mckan514w
    Participant

    Screw selling / paying for your seat- If I am going to do something unethical it would be more along the lines of paying the dude who “didn't study” for FAR and passed to take the exam for me…. 🙂

    and they ask me why I drink...

    FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
    REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
    BEC- 8/11
    AUD- 9/2

    #1500639
    GiniC
    Participant

    @mckan514w I figure they have our fingerprints on file from every time we've been to Prometric, so they'll KNOW if the candidate appearing is different from the one who tested under that ID before.

    #1500645
    GiniC
    Participant

    PLEASE somebody help me understand this???

    Given:
    Tax rate 40% for all years
    Taxable income 40,000
    Year end Future deductible amount 5,000
    Beginning of year balance in deferred tax asset 1000

    Determine the income tax expense for the year

    I see
    DR Tax expense Current 16,000
    ……CR Deferred tax benefit 2,000
    ……CR Income Tax Payable 14,000

    Answer is 15,000 – why did they add back the deferred tax asset sitting in balance at the beginning of the year?

    #1500658
    FalconsDawgs33
    Participant

    @GiniC Is that all there is to the question? If not, could you provide a little more detail or the exact question as it is? I haven't seen a question presented in that way on Becker, so I'm a bit confused by reading it haha. But I just did Accounting for Income Taxes last night, so I may be able to help.

    #1500664
    mckan514w
    Participant

    I worked on this yesterday GiniC– bear with me while I try to explain 🙂

    The question is asking for you total tax expense for the year.
    Your current portion of tax expense is equal to 16
    In addition you have a future deductible amount of 5- which will give rise to a DTA- of 5X.40= 2
    Your current DTA account holds an asset of 1. Your end balance should be equal to this years DTA of 2- thus you will recognize a deferred tax expense of 1

    16 current portion less the Asset that will be deductible in the future is equal to Total tax expense for the year of 15.

    Deferred Tax expense (or benefit) is the net change during the year in the deferred tax assets and liabilities- so your Balance sheet account totals are computed and adjustments are made to move each previous year total to the newly computed amount with the “balancing number” recognized as the expense… kind of like Bad Debt Expense under the aging method

    and they ask me why I drink...

    FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
    REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
    BEC- 8/11
    AUD- 9/2

    #1500670
    GiniC
    Participant

    @FalconsDawgs33 – that's pretty much the whole question, except the problem showed two independent situations and I only typed out one of them.



    @mckan514w
    – why is the ending DTA balance supposed to equal the “year end” future deductible amounts? Are we to assume that the “future deductible amounts” include everything accrued to date, not just temporary differences from the current year, as I was reading it?

    #1500678
    FalconsDawgs33
    Participant

    @GiniC I can answer this one. They give you a beginning of the year DTA of 1,000. This amount represents a future deductible amount of $2,500 (1/40%). The end of the year future deductible amount is now $5,000, which affects the DTA by $5,000 * 40% tax rate = 2,000. The change of 1,000 now must be recorded on the books. The journal entry for the income tax in total is therefore:
    Tax Expense…………15,000
    DTA…………………1,000
    …………Income Taxes Payable…………16,000

    #1500685
    mckan514w
    Participant

    @GiniC- I can't explain it any better than what @falcon just did 🙂 at this point I am trying not to dwell on the why but the how… 🙂 have in my notes that its called the “balance sheet approach” so you might want to google-

    and they ask me why I drink...

    FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
    REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
    BEC- 8/11
    AUD- 9/2

    #1500699
    GiniC
    Participant

    Thanks everyone – my brain functions on logical processes and I stink at memorizing, so if I don't puzzle out the “why” I'll be stumped on the 9th. I found a few sites that are starting to make sense… I used to know this!!!

    #1500826
    norseman88
    Participant

    R&W formed partnership in Year 1. The partnership agreement provides for annual salary allowances of $55,000 for R and $45,000 for W. The partners share profits equally and losses in a 60/40 ratio. The partnership had earnings of $80,000 for year 2 before any allowance to partners. What amount of these earnings should be credited to each partners capital account?

    R W
    43,000 37,000
    40,000 40,000
    45,000 35,000
    44,000 36,000

    Answer is A. I don't understand why the answer isnt B. Wouldn't the earnings be credited to each partners capital account 50/50 at 40,000 and the amount of the loss (salary allowances over earnings) debited to each partners capital account at 60/40 when made?

    #1500841
    Mscfisher
    Participant

    @norseman88

    I think the salary has to come out of the earnings first. So there is actually a loss of 20k for the year. That has to be split 60/40

    So reduce 55 by the 12k share of loss and 45 by the 8k share of loss

Viewing 15 replies - 1,696 through 1,710 (of 2,502 total)
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