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September 4, 2017 at 12:36 pm #1620155
jeffKeymasterWelcome to the Q4 2017 CPA Exam Study Group for FAR. 🙂
Introduce yourselves and let your fellow NINJAs know when you plan to take your FAR exam.
The Five Steps (NINJA Framework): https://www.another71.com/pass-the-cpa-exam/
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September 20, 2017 at 8:52 pm #1635562
LentilcounterParticipantI'm studying this time around by going through all the Ninja MCQ again, taking notes, and reviewing those notes every night before bed. I also plan to do a bunch of Wiley sims. Towards the end of my review, I'll do the Becker practice exams and some Wiley practice exams.
I have notes from last time and put them to the side. I'm reusing some of the materials but essentially starting from scratch.
FAR is a beast and if I had to do this all over again, I would have started with it first. Some people knock it out in a few months and then there are people like me who need almost a year.
Does anyone have any recommendations for practicing DRS simulations? They show up quite a bit in the real exam but in the practice exams of Ninja, Wiley, and Becker, they are minimal or non-existent.
BEC = 72 (6/08/16)
FAR = ?
REG = ?
AUD = ?September 20, 2017 at 9:53 pm #1635652
DeetersParticipantSeptember 20, 2017 at 10:38 pm #1635709
CPYAYYYParticipantCan someone please explain changes in depreciation methods and how they are accounted for? In the Becker video the gentlemen says they are changes in accounting principle but accounted for prospectively…On the multiple choice questions it said they are treated retrospectively…Please help..I know from lifo to fifo it is prospectively.
September 20, 2017 at 11:05 pm #1635725
LentilcounterParticipanta change in depreciation method = considered both a change in accounting principle and a change in estimate, therefore these changes should be accounted for as estimates and handled prospectively
a change from the LIFO inventory valuation method to the FIFO inventory valuation method = change in accounting principle which is handled retrospectively by adjusting the retained earnings of the earliest period presented for the cumulative effect of the change and if prior period comparative financial statements are presented, they should be restated
a change from FIFO inventory valuation method to the LIFO inventory valuation method = can be handled prospectively like a change in estimate due to the “impracticable to estimate” exception rule (U.S. GAAP)
BEC = 72 (6/08/16)
FAR = ?
REG = ?
AUD = ?September 20, 2017 at 11:05 pm #1635727
IwannabeaCPA2017ParticipantHow do you access the AICPA practice exam? I just tried using safari and it keeps saying the website was unexpectedly closed or something. I tried chrome and did the same! Anyone know whats going on? Thanks!
Back to F1.. oh How I have missed Tim Gearty!
September 20, 2017 at 11:11 pm #1635742
IwannabeaCPA2017Participant@CPAthethird, not sure if you still need help but I have just memorized this formula and have helped each time. When going from Cash to Accrual: Increase in CA= ADD; Decrease in CA = Subtract. Increase in CL = Subtract; Decrease in CL = ADD
Then it would be the opposite if going from Accrual to Cash.. and you can apply logic too. Increase in CA (like AR) does it have a cash impact immediately? prob not. Take it back out..Decrease in CA (cash outflow) we want to Add it back then. It may take some time but I think its actually better to understand the logic then to memorize. Good luck!September 21, 2017 at 10:56 am #1635977
JMGParticipantI just got hit with a fail on AUD right in the middle of studying for FAR, so yeah my confidence is destroyed at this point. Trying my best to shake it off and keep going. Not to mention I'm starting a new job which will limit my study time. Just finished F5 in Becker and I think I might do a review of the first 5 sections before moving on just to keep the info fresh. My exam is scheduled for 11/17.
September 21, 2017 at 11:07 am #1635991
seattlinkParticipantSeptember 21, 2017 at 11:09 am #1635998
seattlinkParticipantI think spent 2.5 hour on sim is enough but you gotta be familiar on DRS. A lot of reading on those problems, and I had two DRS on two testlets 🙁
September 21, 2017 at 11:15 am #1636009
AnonymousInactiveSeptember 21, 2017 at 2:04 pm #1636183
abigParticipant…
September 21, 2017 at 2:56 pm #1636229
kdcpaParticipantWhy did we add 2000 shares in denominator while calculating dilutive EPS when we had already added it while calculating Basic EPS?
On June 30, Year 2, Lomond, Inc., issued 20, $10,000, 7% bonds at par. Each bond was convertible into 200 shares of common stock. On January 1, Year 3, 10,000 shares of common stock were outstanding. The bondholders converted all the bonds on July 1, Year 3. The following amounts were reported in Lomond’s income statement for the year ended December 31, Year 3:
Revenues
$977,000
Operating expenses
(920,000)
Interest on bonds
(7,000)
Income before income tax
50,000
Income tax at 30%
(15,000)
Net income
$ 35,000
What amount should Lomond report as its Year 3 diluted earnings per share (DEPS)?
A. $3.50
B. $2.50
C. $3.00
D. $2.85
Answer (D) is correct.
DEPS should be calculated even though no potential common shares were outstanding at year end. The reason is that the purpose of DEPS is to measure the performance of the entity over the reporting period while giving effect to all potential common shares that were outstanding during the period. The bonds were converted into 4,000 (20 bonds × 200 shares) shares of common stock on July 1, Year 3. Thus, the weighted-average number of shares of common stock outstanding is 12,000 shares [(10,000 × 12 ÷ 12) + (4,000 × 6 ÷ 12)]. BEPS therefore equals $2.92 ($35,000 net income ÷ 12,000). To determine if the potential common shares are dilutive, their incremental effect on EPS is calculated. This effect is equal to the after-tax interest that would be added back to net income divided by the potential common shares that would be added to the denominator. After-tax interest equals $4,900 [20 shares × $10,000 par value × 7% × (1 – 30% tax rate) × (6 months ÷ 12 months)], and the dilutive potential common shares equal 2,000 [20 bonds × 200 shares × (6 months ÷ 12 months)]. The computation is based on a half-year period because the convertible bonds were outstanding for only 6 months. The incremental effect on EPS of the assumed conversion at the beginning of the year is $2.45 ($4,900 ÷ 2,000 shares). This amount is less than BEPS, so the convertible bonds are dilutive. Thus, DEPS equals $2.85 [($35,000 + $4,900) ÷ (12,000 + 2,000)].September 21, 2017 at 2:59 pm #1636232
LamisParticipantSeptember 21, 2017 at 4:54 pm #1636303
LentilcounterParticipantOn June 30, Year 2, Lomond, Inc., issued 20, $10,000, 7% bonds at par. Each bond was convertible into 200 shares of common stock. On January 1, Year 3, 10,000 shares of common stock were outstanding. The bondholders converted all the bonds on July 1, Year 3. The following amounts were reported in Lomond’s income statement for the year ended December 31, Year 3:
Revenues
$977,000
Operating expenses
(920,000)
Interest on bonds
(7,000)
Income before income tax
50,000
Income tax at 30%
(15,000)
Net income
$ 35,000Basic EPS = (income available to common shareholders)/weighted average number of common shares outstanding
“Bondholders converted all the bonds on July 1, Year 3.”
This is the reason why we are including it in the basic EPS calculation also. Therefore, basic EPS is different from DEPS in that the denominator is only going to increase if the event actually happens. You don't account for potential.$35,000/12,000 = $2.91
Diluted EPS = (income available to common shareholders + interest on dilutive securities)/weighted average number of common shares outstanding assuming all dilutive securities are converted to common stock
20 bonds*$10,000*0.07*6/12 = $4,900
20 bonds*200 shares =4,000*6/12 =2,000 shares$4,900/$2,000 = $2.45 is less than BEPS so the convertible bonds are dilutive, if it was larger, it would be antidilutive.
I hope this makes sense.
BEC = 72 (6/08/16)
FAR = ?
REG = ?
AUD = ?September 21, 2017 at 4:59 pm #1636304
LentilcounterParticipantBasic EPS denominator = weighted average number of common shares outstanding (events took place)
Diluted EPS denominator = same as basic EPS including all potential dilutive securities converted to CSIn the problem above, it just so happens that the bondholders converted all the bonds too.
Anyone else agree or disagree with me?
BEC = 72 (6/08/16)
FAR = ?
REG = ?
AUD = ? -
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