Even if the exhange had commercial substance the gain shouldn't have been $1000. For an exhange with commercial substance, the full gain is recognized and the full gain is calculated by subtracting asset (given) book value from asset (given) fair value. In this problem, the fair value of the asset (given) is not explicitly provided. If we had to imply it, we would take the cash paid and the book value of the asset (given) 21,500 + 3000 (cost – Acc Depr) = 24,500. We then have to compare the 24,500 to the book value of the asset (given) to obtain the gain.
In order for the solution to be 1000, they must have compared the 24,500 to the 25,500 which is the fair value of the asset received. This is where I have a problem because it goes again the concept.
Well, I guess this will be one of the “agree or disagree and move on” type of question for me. Feel free to add your input if you feel like you have a better explanation. This is one of the Wiley sims and I don't want to take it lightly.
REG: 68, 75
AUD: 80
BEC: 77
FAR: 24, 67, 69, 72, 80 Thank you Lord!!!!
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NYS Licensed CPA - 2013