FAR Study Group April May 2017 - Page 80

Viewing 15 replies - 1,186 through 1,200 (of 1,619 total)
  • Author
    Replies
  • #1559671
    SallyCPA
    Participant

    @cruzer you thought NINJA MCQ was harder than the actual exam? Becker's questions must be twice as hard as the real exam then…lol

    #1559680
    CPAIN2K17
    Participant

    @hottytoddy never mind, I just came across a question that said legal fees should be expensed so I'm not sure why that question is saying to include it in acquisition costs

    #1559703
    Jj
    Participant

    Outside of the gaap and ifrs difference, what is the difference between a revaluation loss and just a regular impairment… aren't they both caused by fv<cv?

    #1559716
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    @WannaFree I think @cruzer and whoever else you mentioned got 5 DRS's because they did well on the previous sim testlets. Like if you do well on the first MCQ testlest, your second will be much more difficult.



    @cruzer
    Were your DRS's all in your final two testlets?

    #1559721
    Anthony
    Participant

    @BobbyCapsCPA Sims are not adaptive. Just because you killed it one TBS testlet doesn't mean you'll get a harder one. Only the MCQ are adaptive.

    #1559725
    cmrn89
    Participant

    @Bobbycaps I'm pretty sure I read that simulations are not adaptive and are already set when you begin the exam.

    #1559746
    Wannafree
    Participant

    BobbyCapsCpa , Jeff has got confirmation from NASBA that SIMs are not adoptive.

    #1559775
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    Ok thanks everyone. I guess SIMS are all random then. I'll see which ones I get next week.

    #1559838
    Pri93
    Participant

    For some reason, I can't grasp the whole concept of converting from Cash basis to accrual basis financial statements. Like i'll get one or two right, but then end up making mistakes. I don't like memorizing and really want to understand it. Can anyone helP??? It'll be SOOO appreciated!!

    #1559854
    Jj
    Participant

    @pri if you post a problem I'll try to walk you through how I do it

    #1559865
    Wannafree
    Participant

    @Priyanka93 ,let me try.
    1.make distinction between capital and revenue.
    2.Expense should match revenue in period.
    Cash system is (think ) a diary written by Non Accountant.
    Accrual System is “What should be ”
    Say you didn't pay rent for December ,cash system will not record any thing but you know you stayed in house and incurred cost in December.
    So in accrual you will pass JE
    1. rent for Dec Dr $100
    Rent payable Cr $100
    So in cash system expense was Zero but should have been 100 and you took care in accrual by passing JE.
    Another example
    Say you paid rent for December (year 1 ) and January ( year 2 ) $200.
    But actual rent for Year 1 ( only December rent ) should have been $100
    accordingly you pass JE
    Dr Rent in Advance 100 ( BS statement )
    Dr Rent expense 100 ( IS )
    Credit Cash 200

    3rd example.
    You bought an equipment for $6000 ,in cash system expense is $6000 but the life of equipment is 5 years .
    So what should be expense for year 1 ? 12 months of usage charge of equipment.
    Depreciation Dr ( year 1 ) $1200 ( IS )
    Accumulated Depreciation $1200 ( BS )

    Just keep in mind Accrual is true cost and revenue matching for period.

    #1559868
    mtaylo24
    Participant

    @Priyanka93 What chapter is that? Error correction? cashflows?

    AUD - 1st - 60 (12/12), 61 (2/13), 61 (8/13), 78! (11/15)
    REG - 55 (2/16) 69 (5/16) Retake(8/16)
    BEC - 71(5/16) Retake (9/16)
    FAR - (8/16)

    #1559880
    SallyCPA
    Participant

    Anyone else taking the test this week? I take it Saturday and am in full panic mode!!

    #1559890
    hccpa
    Participant

    I take it on Sunday and I'm panicking as well. I don't feel prepared at all, but hopefully I can change that by Sunday. Best of luck to you!!

    #1559896
    Wannafree
    Participant

    Under IFRS, a loss must be recognized if the book value exceeds the higher of the present value of the future cash flows or the fair value less necessary costs to sell .
    Under US GAAP, no impairment loss is recognized unless the book value cannot be recovered through future cash flows. The asset should be reduced from its book value to its fair value and a loss is recognized.
    US GAP is simple (common sense ) in 2nd step : CV – FV
    IFRS : Book Value – ( Higher of PV of FCF or the Fair value ).
    “( Higher of PV of FCF or the Fair value )”
    Do you guys have any list of this type of nuances higher or lowest type of things?
    I had prepared a list which I am not finding.

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