FAR Study Group April May 2017 - Page 24

Viewing 15 replies - 346 through 360 (of 1,619 total)
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    Replies
  • #1530469
    SallyCPA
    Participant

    Just started with the NINJA questions and I feel like I literally know nothing after being 6 chapters deep into Becker….

    #1530580
    aatoural
    Participant

    Dunne Co. sells equipment service contracts that cover a two-year period. The sales price of each contract is $600. Dunne’s past experience is that, of the total dollars spent for repairs on service contracts, 40% is incurred evenly during the first contract year and 60% evenly during the second contract year. Dunne sold 1,000 contracts evenly throughout the current year. In its December 31 balance sheet, what amount should Dunne report as deferred service contract revenue?

    a. $540,000
    b. $480,000 CORRECT
    c. $360,000
    d. $300,000

    Can somebody explain please?

    BEC - PASSED
    AUD - 8/29/16
    FAR - TBS
    REG - TBS

    #1530582
    krstnam
    Participant

    @SallyCPA – I felt the same way when I switched from Becker to NINJA. I think my problem was I started forgetting things I had learned in the first couple chapters because it took me so long to barrel through each one. It took me about a week to get used to the NINJA MCQs and then I ended up liking it quite a bit.

    On another note – I got a question that asked about a Plant Fund for a NFP college. I thought maybe it was a fund the college used for their horticulture program. So basically, I feel incredibly NOT smart right no LMAO. I'm going to wait and hit the books again this afternoon because my mind is clearly not on accounting right now.

    #1530585
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    ok this question came up before but i solved it differently…. Not sure if someone else can explain this differently.

    contract is for 2 years, so thats 24 months. $600*1000=600,000*12/24=120,000 was earned the first year

    600-120=480

    What was your solution?

    #1530588
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    i think mtaylo explained this before or maybe turbo

    #1530594
    Ne’O
    Participant

    @AATOURL,

    The quick n dirty version:

    _1000 contracts EVENLY throughout the year__
    40% of year one of of the $600*1000 = $240,000
    but given they were sold evenly through the calendar year, on average they only recognized 6 months of that 40%
    ie. 20% or $120,000 of that $600,000
    600,000- [120,000 rev recognized in year 1]
    leaves you with $480,000 remainder service contract revenue.

    Ne'O

    Newbie CPA Candidate

    #1530595
    aatoural
    Participant

    Thanks guys. I just didn't get how Becker was just assuming July was payment date. They gave a questionable explanation to that answer.

    BEC - PASSED
    AUD - 8/29/16
    FAR - TBS
    REG - TBS

    #1530597
    Ne’O
    Participant

    I see Automn3 posted as I was typing and beat me to it.

    Newbie CPA Candidate

    #1530598
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    glad someone thought like me 🙂 I had issues with beckers solution too (not the best explanation).

    #1530601
    SallyCPA
    Participant

    @krstnam do you think NINJA was more applicable to the actual test than Becker?

    #1530603
    Anthony
    Participant

    @SallyCPA Majority of people will say the Becker MCQ are harder than the real deal. I would personally say that Ninja MCQ are on par in terms of difficulty with the real deal. For sims..well that is a whole another ball game. I don't think Ninja even comes close, not sure about Becker.

    #1530636
    jc861
    Participant

    @aatoural

    I asked about the same question lol. chynablue gave an excellent explanation that really helped me understand it back on page 6. Just out of curiosity, did you try becker academic support?

    #1530646
    jc861
    Participant

    On another note… Could somebody please explain to me the difference between revaluation losses and impairment losses are and how they would be accounted for under IFRS is?

    From my understanding, if an assets carrying value is above FMV, then a loss is recorded against the income statement unless it's reversing a gain in which case it hits OCI to the extent of the gain and any further loss beyond the reversed gain gets recorded as a loss on the IS.

    An impairment loss is also when an assets carrying value is above FMV, in which case the asset needs to be adjusted down to FMV. The gain is reversible to the extent of the initial write down…. in which case if the asset becomes valued even higher, it becomes a revaluation gain??

    Is there even a difference or are they just interchangeable terms? I'm assuming they're not one and the same since becker goes to the length of mentioning both terms in the text and lectures but does not actually explain what the difference is.

    #1530648
    aatoural
    Participant

    @autom – I have that issue with Becker a lot

    I think SIMS is just a Pandora's box. Definitely GLeim MCQs are top hardest.



    @jc861
    – do you have the link. it never hurts to see many ways of answering the same question

    BEC - PASSED
    AUD - 8/29/16
    FAR - TBS
    REG - TBS

    #1530703
    SallyCPA
    Participant

    Anyone currently using NINJA notes for FAR? I am considering adding them into my Becker and NINJA MCQ material..

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