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jeff.
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March 9, 2017 at 12:46 pm #1509585
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March 24, 2017 at 7:24 pm #1522363
AnonymousInactiveactually y2 unrealized loss would be 40,000 not 85,000 sorry!
March 24, 2017 at 7:44 pm #1522371
CPAIN2K17Participant@automn3 you don't recognize unrealized holding gains or losses in income for AFS or HTM securities, only for trading securities. So only the decline in market value when it was a trading security is recognized – $45,000
March 24, 2017 at 7:47 pm #1522380
AnonymousInactiveok so im reading the question wrong. It asks for Loss and from 12/31/y1 to 6/30/y2 we count this as trading therefore we only recognize 45K to i/s. If this asked for net unrealized loss then it would be 40K to OCI?
March 24, 2017 at 7:48 pm #1522383
HoldMyBeerCPAParticipantLet's see if I can get this one right this time.
From my understanding, when a marketable security is re-classified from Trading to AFS, it is done at Fair Market Value. Since the change in fair value was for a trading security, the income/loss on the change will be recognized on the income statement. Subsequent to the re-classification date, the change in fair value of the AFS security will be recognized in OCI.
March 24, 2017 at 7:50 pm #1522386
AnonymousInactive@turbo ha you got this one right :p
Ok THANK YOU BOTH!
March 24, 2017 at 7:55 pm #1522390
mtaylo24Participant@jc861, Having a hard time following your logic and I see nothing wrong with the answer explanation. Evenly throughout the year is usually 1/2 (average contract is assumed to be sold mid-year, so elapsed time must have been 1/2 a year), so 40% * 50% * 600,000 = 120,000; 600,000-120,000=480,000. In scenario 1, I kind of understand why you are breaking the 1,000 contracts down by the month, by why are you dividing the unit price by 12?
AUD - 1st - 60 (12/12), 61 (2/13), 61 (8/13), 78! (11/15)
REG - 55 (2/16) 69 (5/16) Retake(8/16)
BEC - 71(5/16) Retake (9/16)
FAR - (8/16)March 25, 2017 at 10:53 am #1522627
AnonymousInactiveHello CPAs in the making,
I'm taking up my FAR on 10th April and I just discovered some of the portions of FAR are eliminated for the new exam. I referred to the Becker website since I use Becker text, but they seem to be confusing.This is my first exam and it's scary. Could anyone help me know what portion of FAR is eliminated?
Thanks in advance!
March 25, 2017 at 11:27 am #1522635
AnthonyParticipant@edosreloaded
Here is the list of things being eliminated according to Becker: Personal F/S Liquidation basis F/S Joint Ventures Investment Property Debt with conversion features (convertible bonds) Other options (stock options..?) Deferred compensation arrangements Non-retirement Post-employment Benefits ARO Related Party Transactions.
Honestly, I can’t believe they are getting rid of this much stuff! Is this a reliable/correct information? Should I just not study for them at all and be more effective with other areas? I am worried that I would get those questions on the exam when I would not have studied for them at all. Help me Jeff!!
Jeff: Yes – that information is correct and reliable. It sounds like a lot of material to eliminate, but it’s not when you take into account the number of pages/MCQs to remove. REG, on the other hand, had more with Negotiable Instruments stripped out. The AICPA says this stuff isn’t tested any longer, so you should roll with it.
March 25, 2017 at 11:31 am #1522642
AnthonyParticipant@edosreloaded
In the latest Ask Jeff:
Here is the list of things being eliminated according to Becker: Personal F/S Liquidation basis F/S Joint Ventures Investment Property Debt with conversion features (convertible bonds) Other options (stock options..?) Deferred compensation arrangements Non-retirement Post-employment Benefits ARO Related Party Transactions.
March 25, 2017 at 2:42 pm #1522726
AnonymousInactive@jc861 When service contracts are sold evenly throughout the year and the services are provided evenly through out the year you can use the mid-month approach. Its not the only way to estimate average revenue, but that's what they are using here.
Let's look at December. Contracts sold on Dec 1 will incur 31 days of service under contract as of the year end. Contracts sold on Dec 2 will get 30 days of service, etc. Likewise, contracts sold on Dec 31 will only incur 1 day of service. On average, contracts sold in Dec will incur approx 15-16 days of service, right? Another way of saying this is that Dec 15th is the average sale date. So you could say contracts sold in Dec get .5 months worth of service on average. For the year ending Dec 31, Dec contracts can recognize an average of .5 months of service contract revenue earned.
November, however, those contracts will incur an average of .5 months of service in the month of November plus a whole month of service in December. For the year ending Dec 31, November contracts can recognize an average of 1.5 months of service contract revenue earned.
If you continue the pattern, October contracts get 2.5 months service, September contracts get 3.5 months, etc. If you add it all up, you get .5+1.5+2.5+3.5+4.5+5.5+6.5+7.5+8.5+9.5+10.5+11.5=72 and divide by 12 months to get the average for the year 72/12 = 6. For the year, you will recognize an average of 6 months of service. Another way of saying this is that July is the average month of sale.
This is the mid month rule. When contracts are sold evenly and the work is performed evenly, you can go ahead and assume the annual service revenue recognized is half. They use the same kind of logic in tax for the mid-month convention for depreciation. Its just an estimating technique.
40% of contract services are preformed in the first year, so
600k * .4 = 240k earned during first 12 months of contract sold
average of 6 months worth of service is recognized per the mid-month rule
240k * 6/12 = 120k recognized as of Dec 31
600k – 120k = 480k unrecognized as of Dec 31Using your calculations, you can actually get the right answer this way. There's going to be small differences between the way you estimated averages and the way Becker estimates averages.
You got 600k – 129k = 471k unrecognized, so 480k is a pretty close answer. None of the others are close.If it makes you feel any better, this is a weird ass question. Most of the actual exam questions are not like this. This question tests revenue recognition, which is covered in the material, but it also tests the mid-month method of averaging, which is obscure and not in the material. I think it might be in the test bank just to throw you off your game.
March 25, 2017 at 4:21 pm #1522768
jc861Participant@mtaylor24, I broke down the 240 by 12 because the question said the costs were incurred evenly throughout the year, so I assumed that meant 240 divided evenly across the current year.
@chynablue,
Thank you so much. This is exactly the explanation I needed. It really does make me feel better, I moved on from the section but this single question was in the back of my mind driving me crazy. Becker support didn't come close to elaborating on the explanation and I think I was developing some tunnel vision on my part as well. But seriously, thank you!!!!!!!
March 25, 2017 at 4:24 pm #1522774
AnonymousInactiveHey all – Having major issues with this problem and I don't know why I can't figure out the answer:
Investments: Trading Securities
On Jan 1 2014, Corp A purchases bonds in Corp B. The bonds have a par value of $50,000 and the stated interest is 6%, with annual interest payments on December 31 and maturity of December 31, 2023. Corp A purchases the bonds for $43,290 to yield 8% interest, and holds the bonds in its trading account.
On December 31, 2014, the FV of the bonds is $45,000. When the bond market opens on January 2nd, 2015, Corp B sells the bonds for an amount intended to achieve a 7% yield for Corp A.
Disregarding accrued interest, what gain (rounded to whole dollars) should Corp A recognize on the bonds in 2015?
A) $1,742
B) $2,014
C) $2,989
D) $3,452So where I am at is Corp A records effective interest of $3,463, gets paid $3,000 cash, and has a carrying value before fair value adjustment of $43,753 at year end. Since they are required to record the investment at FV, they'd debit the investment for $1,247 and credit unrealized gain (income) for the same. Being that the investment is now on the books at $45,000 and Corp B sells the investment intended to achieve 7% for Corp A, I'm confused at how you'd calculate that. I'd imagine it was 7% of $45,000 but that doesn't work. Any thoughts?
March 25, 2017 at 6:13 pm #1522807
cmrn89Participantany luck delbudge?
March 25, 2017 at 7:48 pm #1522876
AnonymousInactive@cmrn89 No not yet. I keep going over it and I just can't seem to figure it out. I've sent it to a couple friends so if I get an answer I will post it.
March 26, 2017 at 10:34 am #1523049
AnonymousInactiveWe only test for impairment of goodwill only if it's acquisition goodwill correct?
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