On the Wiley CPAExcel video on Consolidation Less than 100% Ownership, does anyone know where the instructor got the FV adjustment to come up wit the NCI Equity? If you watch the video, at the 12 minutes and 13 second mark she has NCI Calculation.
S's Net book value $200,000
+FV adjustment $100,000
-Depreciation FV adjustment (5,000)
-Goodwill impairment 0
S's adjusted Net book value $295,000
xNCI percentage .20
NCI Equity 59,000
The problem reads: P (Passing) purchased 80% of S (Score) for $200,000 on January 1, 20×8. On that date, the net book vlue of S was $150,000, which equaled the fair value of all of S's assets and liabilities except for equipment. Equipment had a FV of $100,000 and a carrying value of $80,000. Any excess price was attributed to goodwill. The remaining life of the equipment was four years. The fair value of the noncontrolling interest was $50,000.
When I re-read the question, I thought, why wouldn't the fair value adjustment in the calculation above be $20,000 rather than $100,000, presuming that's where the instructor pulled the FV adjustment of $100,000. Can someone help explain?