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Can somebody explain it to me why cash basis accounting understates income by the net decrease during the accounting period of accrued expenses? and not account receivable? I still dont really understand the conversion from cash basis to accrual. Thanks in advance to those who help me explain this question! i use becker… The answer explains that the income under cash basis is higher than the accrual.
The explanation takes the Sales Accrued-Accrued Exp= Net Income under accrual
and then cash collection-payments= Net income. I thought that means Net income in cash basis overstates accrual basis? Did I just read the question stem wrong?
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