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So I get that for cash flow hedges and for foreign currency cash flow hedges that for gains/losses the effective portion goes to OCI and the ineffective portion goes to earnings. My trouble is that Gearty mentions in the lecture that later the OCI portion goes to earnings but doesn’t bother to elaborate. When/how does that happen. Is it amortized over time or reclassified as a lump? Furthermore, anybody have any thoughts on how this might be tested on the Exam? (ie conceptual multiple choice or actual quantitative problem) I think I understand it enough for a couple of conceptual multiple choice, but there is just no way I’m coming out on top of a real quantitative question. If anyone thinks that I could see a “real” problem on this, does anyone know where I could learn a little more about it? (I do recognize that this probably won’t be more than a couple of points, but I don’t want to just give up on any available points.) Thanks.
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