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Topic
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On January 1, 1990, Babson, Inc. leased two automobiles for executive use. The lease requires Babson
to make five annual payments of $13,000 beginning January 1, 1990. At the end of the lease term,
December 31, 1994, Babson guarantees the residual value of the automobiles will total $10,000. The
lease qualifies as a capital lease. The interest rate implicit in the lease is 9%. Present value factors for
the 9% rate implicit in the lease are as follows:
For an annuity due with 5 payments 4.240
For an ordinary annuity with 5 payments 3.890
Present value of $1 for 5 periods 0.650
Babson’s recorded capital lease liability immediately after the first required payment should be:
a. $48,620
b. $44,070
c. $35,620
d. $31,070
CPA-00574 Explanation
Choice “a” is correct. $48,620 capital lease liability after first required payment.
Annual payments $ 13,000
PV of annuity due (at beginning of year) ×4.240
PV of annual payments before first required payment 55,120
Less first payment (Jan. 1, 1990) (13,000)
PV of annual payments after first required payment 42,120
Add PV of guaranteed residual value (PV of $ for 5 periods 0.650 x $10,000) 6,500
Capital lease liability after first required payment $48,620
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My Question, I don’t really get the logic of this question. Babson leases the automobiles for its own executive use. Why Babson still needs to guarantee the residual value of the automobiles? Since this is a capital lease, the automobiles will transfer to Babson at the end of the lease anyway. In fact, I thought the PV of the residual value of the automobiles will reduce the liability of the lease. Am I misread the question here???? Can someone please explain the logic of the residual value?
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