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March 20, 2018 at 4:58 am #1742286
jeffKeymasterWelcome to the FAR CPA Exam study group for April & May 2018 exams. 🙂
FAR Study Group Links and Resources:
- NINJA Monthly – Full FAR Course for $67/mo
- How to Study for FAR with NINJA Only
- How to Pass FAR in 20 Days
- How to Retake FAR After Failing
- Video: Study Advice for FAR
- CPA Reviewed Podcast
- CPA Exam Score Release Dates
- NINJA MCQ Trending vs Actual FAR Scores
- I Passed the CPA Exam!
- I Passed FAR!
- CPA Review Course Comparison
- NINJA FAR SIMS List by Topic
- Free Downloads: NINJA FAR
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April 11, 2018 at 9:18 pm #1763675
future_CPA_ParticipantGood luck for exam!! @gguzman
April 12, 2018 at 4:10 pm #1764469April 13, 2018 at 8:57 am #1764938
PamParticipantApril 13, 2018 at 9:09 am #1764961
AnonymousInactiveShooting for FAR on the 30th. Will be my second attempt after a 74 last year which may have been because of the unexpected insane work week before it. Using Gleim and supplementing with NINJA. Just finished the Employee Benefits unit last night with 9 units left and the material I admit is going into my mind much better than the previous attempt probably because how bad I want to finish this whole thing in June. Going to try and finish the remaining units by next Sunday. I am not following Gleims smart adapt system as that can hold me up on a unit forever with some of their insane MCQs they have. Then after that I will have 40 days to prepare for REG which is already scheduled for June 10th and it is my first attempt at it. I passed AUD last year with a 75 and BEC in February with an 88 so I have until September 10th to finish the other two before AUD expires. Gonna be a fun next two months……
April 13, 2018 at 11:54 am #1765135
ahugemistakeParticipantApril 13, 2018 at 11:58 am #1765136
ahugemistakeParticipant@gguzman not sure if you're still checking this thread, but how did it go?
FAR - 78*
AUD - 66, 79
REG - 73, 76
BEC - 79April 15, 2018 at 1:08 am #1766408
faisalzamilParticipantThe differences in Beal Inc.'s Balance Sheet accounts at December 31, 20X4 and 20X3, are presented below:
Assets Increase (Decrease)
Cash and cash equivalents $ 120,000
Short-term investments 300,000
Account receivable, net –
Inventory 80,000
Long-term investments (100,000)
Plant assets 700,000
Accumulated depreciation –
$1,100,000
Liabilities and Stockholders' Equity
Accounts payable and accrued liabilities $ (5,000)
Dividends payable 160,000
Short-term bank debt 325,000
Long-term debt 110,000
Common Stock, $10 par 100,000
Additional paid-in capital 120,000
Retained Earnings 290,000
$1,100,000
The following additional information relates to 20X4:Net income was $790,000.
Cash dividends of $500,000 were declared.
Building costing $600,000, with a carrying amount of $350,000, was sold for $350,000.
Equipment costing $110,000 was acquired through issuance of long-term debt.
A long-term investment was sold for $135,000. There were no other transactions affecting long-term investments. These investments are categorized as available for sale.
10,000 shares of common stock were issued for $22 a share.
The short-term investments are classified as trading securities.
In Beal's 20X4 Statement of Cash Flows, net cash provided by operating activities wasAnswer:
Net income $790,000
Increase in inventory (80,000)
Decrease in AP/accrued liabilities ( 5,000)
Gain on sale of long-term investments ($135,000 − $100,000) (35,000)
Increase in short-term investments (from purchase) (300,000)
Depreciation expense 250,000
Equals net operating cash inflow $620,000
The accumulated depreciation account did not change during the year. Therefore, depreciation expense equals $250,000, which offsets the decrease in the account due to the sale of the equipment.Hi brethren, I spent a lot of time with this question and still I cant figure out conceptually how and why did they add back the accumulated depreciation for the sold building. Every other item I get how it came about except for the depreciation expense.
If you guys can help me figure out how did this happen ill appreciate it.
April 15, 2018 at 6:47 pm #1767158
SalParticipantDuring 20X1, Brad Co. issued 5,000 shares of $100 par convertible preferred stock for $110 per share. One share of preferred stock can be converted into three shares of Brad's $25 par common stock at the option of the preferred shareholder. On December 31, 20X2, when the market value of the common stock was $40 per share, all of the preferred stock was converted. What amount should Brad credit to common stock and to additional paid-in capital common stock as a result of the conversion?
Preferred stock5 000 shares @ $ 100 par value
Issued for $ 110 per shareDebit Cash 550 000
Credit preferred stock 500 000
Credit APIC 50 000Common stock
1: 3 share convertible ratio
$ 25 par common stock5000 shares x 3 = 15 000 converted shares
Market value = $40 / per shareDebit Preferred stock 500 000
Debit APIC 50 000 ****
Credit Common Stock 375 000 (15 000 shares x 25 par)
Credit APIC 175 000 ****– Could some one explain me the logic between a Debit from preferred stock APIC to Credit of Common stock APIC. I see that APIC is additional amount we receive when we issue stock above our par value so the entries speak for themselves. Now when we convert Preferred to common we debit the Preferred and credit common. Now i see the common par value was $25 and 15000 shares @ 25 = 375 000
, now the market was was at $ 40 , so it would be 15000 x $ 40 = 600 000
so APIC is 600 000 – 375 000 = 225 000 ???? are we moving Preferred APIC to Common so we debit the $ 50 000 ?? I cant visualize the APIC entry and its bothering me. Might be a stupid question. Just need to understand this.April 16, 2018 at 7:12 pm #1768157
AnonymousInactiveThe answer to the question below does not make sense to me. It references that “Service cost is a component of compensation expense, not net periodic pension cost.”. Isn't Service Cost the “S” in PRIUS? (this is NINJA's acronym for the component of net periodic pension cost. can somebody clarify?
Service cost $160,000
Actual and expected gain on plan assets 35,000
Unexpected loss on plan assets related to
a disposal of a subsidiary 40,000
Amortization of prior service cost 5,000
Annual interest on pension obligation 50,000What amount should Lee report as a separate line item titled “net periodic pension cost” in its current year-end income statement?
Service cost is a component of compensation expense, not net periodic pension cost. To compute the net periodic pension cost, subtract the expected rate of return on plan assets, add the amortization of prior service cost, and add the interest cost on the pension obligation:
$(35,000) + $5,000 + $50,000 = $20,000
April 16, 2018 at 7:58 pm #1768210
AnonymousInactive@cm185203 ,
Reading this question threw me off a bit too. However, the key point here is income statement presentation. On the I/S service cost is reported separately from the rest of pension expense. The formula you have for pension expense is correct.
Do you have access to NINJA notes or your review course's study guide? Details like this can usually be found with a little reading, which can help you get a handle on things.
April 16, 2018 at 8:14 pm #1768213
AnonymousInactive@benj2017 – the ninja notes specifically state
Prior Service Cost Amortization
– Return on Plan Assets (Estimated)
+ Interest
+ Unexpected Losses or (-) Gains
+ Service Cost
= Net Periodic Pension Costso how is this not part of the net periodic pension cost? or at least, what is the nuance that i dont follow?
April 16, 2018 at 8:48 pm #1768232
AnonymousInactive@cm185203,
You need to slow down and read the responses on here and think before you post.
I just said on the I/S that service cost is presented separately from pension expense or “net periodic pension expense”.
That's it….it's just a presentation, it doesn't affect the formula or journal entries.
This question is supposed to confuse you, just like a lot of other CPA questions. Find the reference in the NINJA notes regarding I/S presentation and not the pension expense formula.
April 16, 2018 at 9:19 pm #1768265
AnonymousInactive@benj2017 – before writing this question, i had reviewed the ninja notes, the ninja book, and the wiley book for clarification, and i am unable to find any guidance that mandates that “service cost” is reflected as a part of compensation expense on the income statement. The Ninja notes reference service cost – “(NEW) Only Component of NPBC allowed as an Operating Expense on Income Statement” but use “allowed”, not required, etc. no mention of compensation expense. just trying to get my ducks in a row here on the areas i'm unclear on . my test is tomorrow. trust me, i'm plenty familiar with the CPA exam tricking/confusing us on purpose, but cannot find a reference that explains this to me clearly. are you able to point me to where this is stated?
April 16, 2018 at 9:41 pm #1768273
AnonymousInactiveApril 17, 2018 at 1:52 pm #1768886
AnonymousInactiveHi all,
I'm using Becker 2017 and NINJA monthly to help me study FAR.
I have a question on the investment in equity securities section. In NINJA book, FAR 2, page 81, it says if the percentage ownership is less than 20%, then Fair Value method should be used to account for the investment in equity securities. However, I've looked everywhere in NINJA book, and all I can find is the cost method.
I know per ASU 2016-01, the accounting for equity investment has changed. The guideline requires all investments that are within its scope to be measured at fair value, with changes in fair value recognized in net income. Is this the “Fair Value Method” that NINJA book was talking about?
Can someone please help me explain what is going on here? Is the fair value method gone? Thank you!!
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