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I have a 2 part question that I could not understand from Becker/Wiley and I hope someone can explain it to me please.
Company A has the following income and losses and chose to apply carryforward,
Y2 (400) loss
Y3 1,200 income
tax rate is 30% for all years.
for the carryforward to apply to Y3 is Y2 (400) * .30 = 120 DTA
Y2 DTA 120
Benefit due to carryforward 120
Question 1, what is the Y3 total tax expense, had company feels its more like than not that all DTA will be used? (no valuation allowance)
Im told the answer is 360 because its Y2 DTA 120 + Y3 (1200-400) * .30 = 360
Tax expense Now 360
Benefit used 120
DTA 120
Tax payable 360
Why is it that the answer 360, it is because Y2 DTA 120 was used and Y3 240 expense was used?
Are my entries correct?
Question 2, what is the Y3 total tax expense, had company feels its not more likely than not that all DTA will be used? (w/ valuation allowance)
Im told answer is 240, because valuation allowance was used in Y2 that made the 120 DTA obsolete.
Y2 DTA 120
Benefit due to carryforward 120
Benefit due to carryforward 120
Valuation allowance 120
so in Y3, the valuation is reversed and DTA is again, usable.
Tax expense NOW 360
DTA 120
Tax payable 240
Valuation allowance 120
Benefit due to CF 120
WHY is the answer 240 this time? Y2 DTA 120 and Y3 240 current tax ARE used right? shouldnt it be 360 eventhough the valuation reversed?
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