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My main study source is Becker, but I did purchase the Wiley Test Bank for some additional practice. I came across this question today that perplexes me:
Veronica Corp. uses the revaluation model for intangible assets. On March 1, Year 1, Veronica acquired intangibles assets with an indefinite life for $200,000. On December 31, Year 1, it was determined that the recoverable amount for these intangible assets was $180,000. On December 31, Year 2, it was determined that the recoverable amount for these intangible assets was $187,000. How should Veronica recognize the gain or loss in the December 31, Year 2 financial statements?
A. Unrealized loss in OCI of $20,000
B. Gain on the Income Statement of $7,000
C. Loss on the Income Statement of $20,000
D. Unrealized gain in OCI of $7,000
According to Wiley, the answer is D. Here is why I am confused: Under the revaluation model, the general rule is that revaluation surpluses (gains) are recognized in OCI and that revaluation losses are recognized in earnings. BUT, the exception is that if a revaluation gain reverses a previous revaluation loss, it will be recognized in the Income Statement. Also, if a revaluation loss reverses a previous revaluation gain, it will be recognized in OCI.
Why is the answer not B then? There was a revaluation loss of $20,000 in Year 1, and a revaluation gain of $7,000 in Year 2. Doesn’t that $7,000 gain reverse the previously recognized loss of $20,000?
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