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Topic
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NINJA Question –
Okay I’ve been staring at this problem for so long but I cannot seem to figure it out. Based on the question below, the logical procedure would seem to be using the $385,000 of cash to repay the the $120,000 A/P before they distribute the leftover of $265,000 proportionately. My method was wrong. Fine. I take a look at the correct method of doing it. No where in their calculation do I see them paying back the account’s payable. But surprisingly the total of the two ending balances add up to $265,000. It’s as if the A/P just vanished. I am so mindf**ked right now. Can someone unmindf**k me please? (Excuse me for my language, but there is no better way to describe my current state.)
The following condensed balance sheet is presented for the partnership of Smith and Jones, who share profits and losses in the ratio of 60:40, respectively:
Other assets: $450,000
Smith, loan: 20,000
Total: $470,000
Accounts payable $120,000
Smith, capital: 195,000
Jones, capital: 155,000
Total: $470,000
The partners have decided to liquidate the partnership. If the other assets are sold for $385,000, what amount of the available cash should be distributed to Smith?
Answer: $136,000
Smith’s capital: 195,000 – 39,000 loss on sale of asset – 20,000 loan= $136,000
Jones capital: 155,000 – 26,000 loss on sale of asset = 129,000
Ending balances: $136,000 + 129,000 = >>>$265,000<<<
And there you go. Magic. Just sell the asset and realize the loss on disposal and A/P is automatically paid off. That $265,000 is the same $265,000 you get when you take the $385,000 of cash and repaying A/P of $120,000.
I’ve been up for 16 hours studying. My brain is too dead to figure out this puzzle. ㅠ_ㅠ
FAR 85 June 2015
AUD 80 Nov 2015
REG 83 Nov 2015
BEC 79 Feb 2016
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