[Whopper Warrior]

Just found out this little tidbit doing some Becker C3 study on my own:

pv of yr 1 + pv of yr 2 + pv of yr 3 = pv of an annuity for 3 years.

Long Cash Flow with a common denominator, use the root and solve for the rest.

For Example Cash Flows by year of $120k, 80k, 40k, 40k, 40k (no annuity data, only pv of a $ .91, .76, .63, .53, .44, respectfully ) Also included was totals of $300k and 3.27 respectfully.

The Fast Way: 40k*3.27 (5 year annuity of 40$) + 80k*.91 (additional 80$ in yr 1) + 20k*.76 (additional 20 in yr 2) = 218,800

Ain’t Nobody got Time for that way: 120k*.91+60k*.76+40k*.63+40k*.53+40k*.44=218,800 (pv of each year)

Even if Annuity data was given you would have to calculate the pv of the annuity, and then pv that lump back an additional 2 years which is still more work then just doing one annuity and then calculating the additional “off” years.

Anyone else use this trick? or is it wrong and how?

Have any other time saving tips? Every Second Counts as I think I have a measly 40 wpm

ALL 4 parts passed summer 13
Ethics October 13
Experience (waiting)

Becker Only

[Whopper Warrior]

Also I had posted this earlier on equivalent units in another thread I started but would like to try to consolidate my ideas into one thread instead of a million micro threads. Is there a way to do this? I also hope YOU post your time saving tips or throw out some comments as well.

Equivalent Units:

Units Completed

+ Ending wip (% complete)

= Weighted Average

Weighted Average

– Beginning wip (% complete)

= FIFO

ALL 4 parts passed summer 13
Ethics October 13
Experience (waiting)

Becker Only

[Author]

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