- This topic has 569 replies, 104 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by
Theodore.
-
CreatorTopic
-
September 14, 2016 at 8:44 pm #836143
jeffKeymasterWelcome to the Q4 2016 CPA Exam Study Group for BEC.
If this is your first post in the study group – please post your target exam date (just the time frame to preserve your anonymity), and your past history with this exam (optional, of course).
-
AuthorReplies
-
October 7, 2016 at 1:44 pm #854431
mckan514wParticipant@Sticky Nicky – there is no salvage value in the question you posted… The machine is purchased at $150,000 and is depreciated at 30%, 40%, 30% thus 100% of it is depreciated…. it is then sold for 10,000 (it is a tricky wording of the problem)- but after depreciation the book value is 0.
The second question has driven me crazy ever since my first take of BEC because I agree with you it seems like it would be relevant but this one came up for me again this morning and finally think I “got it” . Relevant cost are those cost outside of your “sunk cost” that make a difference in decision making… so in this case the old van has already been paid for whether someone buys it or not makes no difference to whether you should spend the money for a new van. It is a sunk cost- You keep the van you lose the money- you sell the van you get the money but you could do either without purchasing a new van… if that makes sense. Only the current / future outlay of new cash coming in / going out are relevant in whether or not you buy a new van… which would be how much would it be to buy it and how much is it going to cost you to do so (i.e. dispose of the old one)…
Hope this helps!
and they ask me why I drink...
FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
BEC- 8/11
AUD- 9/2October 7, 2016 at 2:34 pm #854470
Sticky NickyParticipant@mckan514w i've come to the same conclusion regarding the second question: cash in/cash out. the first i believe the trick is the word “fully” depreciated. ridic. did u take BEC today?
October 7, 2016 at 3:07 pm #854500
mckan514wParticipantNo- next week….. and BTW Loving the profile pic ha ha ha ha…
and they ask me why I drink...
FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
BEC- 8/11
AUD- 9/2October 7, 2016 at 4:27 pm #854548
Sticky NickyParticipantlmao! had to do it given the current psychopathic events
October 7, 2016 at 5:23 pm #854566
mckan514wParticipantIts pure perfection- if only you could get away wearing it to prometrics- ha ha ha ha…. (okay studying has officially warped my mind)
and they ask me why I drink...
FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
BEC- 8/11
AUD- 9/2October 7, 2016 at 8:28 pm #854655
me71tooParticipantOctober 7, 2016 at 9:17 pm #854668
Forem004ParticipantThe answer is $3,264, but I'm not following the order for the calculation. Suggestions?
A company uses the following formula in determining its optimal level of cash:
C* = Square root of 2bT/i
Where:b = Fixed cost per transaction
i = Interest rate on marketable securities
T = Total demand for cash over a period of time
This formula is a modification of the economic order quantity (EOQ) formula used for inventory management. Assume that the fixed cost of selling marketable securities is $10 per transaction, and the interest rate on marketable securities is 6% per year. The company estimates that it will make cash payments of $12,000 over a 1-month period. What is the average cash balance (rounded to the nearest dollar)?October 7, 2016 at 10:38 pm #854683
Sticky NickyParticipantplug it all into the equation lol,, but u gotta use .005 for the interest rate…then since its optimal level u have to divide the answer by 2 to get the average
October 8, 2016 at 5:25 am #854727
mckan514wParticipantI hate the EOQ questions… like @sticky Nicky said just plug it in but they never show you in the explanations do they!? In this case its SQRT 2(10)(12,000)/(.06/12) — this is because the 12,000 is per month…. so sqrt 240,000/.005 = sqrt 48,000,000=6,928 but since they want the average here it is (0+6926)/2 = $3,264
and they ask me why I drink...
FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
BEC- 8/11
AUD- 9/2October 8, 2016 at 6:25 am #854728
mckan514wParticipantWHERE??? In this question does it say that the company wants to only raise 200,000??? According to the answer explanation that is the number we are suppose to base the cost of equity on but how are we suppose to know this??? What am I missing here??? Thanks!
Williams, Inc., is interested in measuring its overall cost of capital and has gathered the following data. Under the terms described as follows, the company can sell unlimited amounts of all instruments.
Williams can raise cash by selling $1,000, 8%, 20-year bonds with annual interest payments. In selling the issue, an average premium of $30 per bond would be received, and the firm must pay flotation costs of $30 per bond. The after-tax cost of funds is estimated to be 4.8%.
Williams can sell 8% preferred stock at par value, $105 per share. The cost of issuing and selling the preferred stock is expected to be $5 per share.
Williams' common stock is currently selling for $100 per share. The firm expects to pay cash dividends of $7 per share next year, and the dividends are expected to remain constant. The stock will have to be underpriced by $3 per share, and flotation costs are expected to amount to $5 per share.
Williams expects to have available $100,000 of retained earnings in the coming year; once these retained earnings are exhausted, the firm will use new common stock as the form of common stock equity financing.
Williams' preferred capital structure is long-term debt, 30%; preferred stock, 20%; and common stock, 50%.
The firm's weighted average cost of capital would be:A. 4.8%.
B. 6.6%.
Incorrect C. 6.8%.
D. 7.3%.
The weighted cost of capital is 6.6%.
Step 1: Calculate the after-tax cost of each source of capital.
The cost of long-term debt, after tax, is given at 4.8%.
The cost of new preferred stock can be calculated as:
kpm = D / (PO – u – f), or kpm = 8.40 / (105 – 0 – 5) = 8.4%
Where:
D = Annual dividend, or 0.08 × $105 (the par value), or $8.4
PO = Selling price to the public of the new issue
u = Underpricing
f = Flotation cost per shareNew equity consists of retained earnings and/or new issues of common stock. In this case, 50% of the 200,000 of total new funds must come from equity. Since the firm has $100,000 in retained earnings, the relevant cost of new equity is the cost of retained earnings, 7 ÷ 100 + 0%, or 7.0%.
Step 2: Calculate the Weighted Average Cost of Capital:Source After-Tax Cost x Weight =
—— ————– ——
a. L-T Debt .048 x .30 = .0144
b. Pref. Stock .084 x .20 = .0168
c. Ret. Earnings .070 x .50 = .0350
—–
Weighted Average Cost of Capital = .066 or 6.6%Terms
and they ask me why I drink...
FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
BEC- 8/11
AUD- 9/2October 8, 2016 at 7:14 am #854736
Sticky NickyParticipanti was askin myself the same thing last night on this question…dont get it…ask jeff…bet he wont answer
October 8, 2016 at 7:50 am #854740
mckan514wParticipantThanks-:-)
and they ask me why I drink...
FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
BEC- 8/11
AUD- 9/2October 8, 2016 at 8:35 am #854743
mtaylo24ParticipantShould we even bother with the 200K? I guess its 100,000 for CS RE (50% of WACC), and the rest is the other 100K, 33,333 for PS (33.3% or 1/3, 30% of WACC), and 66,667 (66.7% or 2/3, 20% of WACC) I'm not sure if it is even needed for us to answer.
Solution without doing all of that:
Debt – 4.8% (given) * 30% = 1.4%
PS – .08 * 105 (both given) = 8.4/100 (given) = 8.4% * 20% = 1.7%
CS 7/100 (both given) = 7% * 50% = 3.5%
1.4% (Debt) + 1.7% (PS) + 3.5% (CS) = 6.6% (WACC)
AUD - 1st - 60 (12/12), 61 (2/13), 61 (8/13), 78! (11/15)
REG - 55 (2/16) 69 (5/16) Retake(8/16)
BEC - 71(5/16) Retake (9/16)
FAR - (8/16)October 8, 2016 at 8:52 am #854746
Sticky NickyParticipantmtaylo..your right! too bad the answer explanation doesnt address that particular segment properly.
October 8, 2016 at 9:39 am #854755
mckan514wParticipantMTAYLO yes you are on the right track!! did some digging around and found that when there is retained earnings to be used then you do not pay the float or under that is noted in this question… so the amount doesn't matter the reason being the float and underage come out of RE…. would have been nice if the explanation stated this… so confusing…
and they ask me why I drink...
FAR- 61-next time I'll ask for lube instead of a calculator
REG-75- Never been so happy to see such a low grade
BEC- 8/11
AUD- 9/2 -
AuthorReplies
- The topic ‘BEC Study Group Q4 2016 - Page 14’ is closed to new replies.
