BEC Study Group Q4 2014 - Page 70

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  • #626682
    Tarheelgirl
    Member

    Answer is $75,000

    When production is greater than sales, absorption costing income will be greater than variable costing income. This is because when production is greater than sales, more fixed costs are deferred in the inventory cost to the next period under absorption costing.

    That is the only explanation in WTB.

    FAR - 46, 79 (7/8/14)
    AUD - 56, 59, 2/23/15 3rd times a charm!
    BEC - 69, 74 Really??
    REG - April, I hope. Fingers crossed!

    #626683
    jstay
    Participant

    waht the heck..the quesiton didnt even mention variable and absorption.

    and it says no change in inventory level so wouldnt that mean everything purchased as sold?

    #626684
    jstay
    Participant
    #626685
    lauren725
    Member

    Good morning people! I survived my test yesterday (barely)! Whew, ok so it was definitely hard, but it was really hard the first time I took it so I was expecting anything. First testlet took about 40 mins, and I marked maybe 6. I felt all 3 testlets had some hard questions in them so I am not sure. The second testlet took an hour and I marked probably 8-9. Last testlet 45 mins and marked 8-9 again.

    I can confidently say that I gave it my best effort. The questions that I had no clue on (maybe 8 total? ish), I did not see that information in either review course I used so I just gave it my best educated guess.

    The writing was not fun, as I had 30 minutes and two of the prompts were a little confusing. I tried my best throwing in words and things that related to the topic. It is just survival mode at this point.

    We will see in a few weeks. Ya'll keep doing what you are doing and we will get through this. Now to have a spa day and get my hair cut and feel human for once. Ha! I will check back soon!

    AUD - 73,91
    FAR - 79 - Thank you God!
    BEC - 73,79!!!!
    REG - 92 whatttt??!

    I used Becker review + flashcards, Ninja Audio, Ninja MCQ supplement on BEC and REG.

    Done! Praise God!

    #626686
    Tarheelgirl
    Member

    @jstay – Thanks! I was thinking the same thing. When I read the answer I had a WTF moment too.

    I will go with $70,000 for the answer as it makes more sense. I don't know how they got $75k.

    FAR - 46, 79 (7/8/14)
    AUD - 56, 59, 2/23/15 3rd times a charm!
    BEC - 69, 74 Really??
    REG - April, I hope. Fingers crossed!

    #626687
    NJPRU
    Member

    @j I also came up with 70 and was dumbfounded to find out that wiley had 75 – so I did a little research:

    https://www.another71.com/cpa-exam-forum/topic/wileytestbank-cpaexcel-bec-lot-of-wrong-questions

    the answer is definitely 70k.

    @lauren – i truly have faith that you have passed this beast! enjoy your few weeks off and then get started on REG! 🙂 you got this!!!

    AUD: DONE
    FAR: DONE
    BEC: DONE
    REG: DONE

    IM GOING TO BE A CPA!!!!!

    #626688
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    It says beginning A/P though doesn't it? Shouldn't you use 150% of 100,000 instead of 300,000?

    #626689
    jstay
    Participant

    yeah 100 x 1.50 for 150 and then add that difference on to the 300 disbursement

    300 x 1.50 would be 450

    #626690
    Tarheelgirl
    Member

    yes 100,000 x 1.5 = 150,000 ending AP

    300,000 + 50,000 extra cost = 350,000

    350,000 x 1.5 = 525,000

    525,000 – 450,000 (you got) = 75,000

    FAR - 46, 79 (7/8/14)
    AUD - 56, 59, 2/23/15 3rd times a charm!
    BEC - 69, 74 Really??
    REG - April, I hope. Fingers crossed!

    #626691
    Fil-Am
    Participant

    Answer is $70,000. It's Wiley's error. This question is on CPAExcel and the answer is $70k

    Johnson Co., distributor of candles, has reported the following budget assumptions for year 1: No change in candles inventory level; cash disbursement to candle manufacturer, $300,000; target accounts payable ending balance for year 1 is 150% of accounts payable beginning balance; and sales price is set at a markup of 20% of candle purchase price. The candle manufacturer is Johnson's only vendor, and all purchases are made on credit. The accounts payable has a balance of $100,000 at the beginning of year 1. What is the budgeted gross margin for year 1?

    A. $60,000

    B. $70,000

    C. $75,000

    D. $87,500

    Answer is B

    Gross Profit ($70,000) is determined by subtracting Cost of Goods Sold ($350,000) from Sales ($420,000). Sales is calculated by multiplying a markup of 20% based on cost of goods sold (i.e., $420,000 = 1.2($350,000). Cost of Goods Sold is easily determined by using an accounts payable T-account to calculate purchases of $350,000 by using the cash paid of $300,000 and the beginning and ending balances of accounts payable ($100,000 and $150,000, respectively).

    Anything worth doing is probably not easy, but the rewards are worth it. (unknown)
    Please feel free to add me on LinkedIn just to say hello or stay in touch.

    CPA Exam - PASSED 2014
    CALCPA Ethics - Passed 2014
    CA CPA License - Pending

    To God be the Highest Glory. Little Miracle happens every second!

    #626692
    Krissyagar
    Member

    Does anyone have any advice on studying the equivalent unit problems? I've tried memorizing all the steps for weighted average and FIFO, but when I get into a practice test I still seem to have no idea how to calculate them!

    FAR- 84
    AUD- 97
    REG- 90
    BEC- 85

    #626693
    Krissyagar
    Member

    A manufacturing company employs a process cost system. The company’s product passes through both Department 1 and Department 2 in order to be completed. Conversion costs are incurred uniformly throughout the process in Department 2.; The direct material is added in Department 2 when conversion is 80% complete. This direct material is a preservative that does not change the volume. Spoiled units are discovered at the final inspection and are recognized then for costing purposes. The physical flow of units for the current month is presented below.

    Beginning work in process in Department 2

    (90% complete with respect to conversion costs) 14,000

    Transferred in from Department 1 76,000

    Completed and transferred to finished goods 80,000

    Spoiled units—all normal 1,500

    Ending work in process in Department 2

    (60% complete with respect to conversion costs) 8,500

    If the manufacturing company uses the weighted-average method, the equivalent units for direct materials in Department 2 for the current month would be

    67,500

    80,000

    81,500

    90,000

    FAR- 84
    AUD- 97
    REG- 90
    BEC- 85

    #626694
    NJPRU
    Member

    @j – how is your studying going today?

    AUD: DONE
    FAR: DONE
    BEC: DONE
    REG: DONE

    IM GOING TO BE A CPA!!!!!

    #626695
    Fil-Am
    Participant

    Anything worth doing is probably not easy, but the rewards are worth it. (unknown)
    Please feel free to add me on LinkedIn just to say hello or stay in touch.

    CPA Exam - PASSED 2014
    CALCPA Ethics - Passed 2014
    CA CPA License - Pending

    To God be the Highest Glory. Little Miracle happens every second!

    #626696
    AGI
    Participant

    No. It must be C.

    weighted-average method = Complete Unit Transfer out + Normal Spoiled Units + Any % of Ending Inventory

    =80K+1.5K+0 = 81.5K

    Normal spoiled is part of overhead cost

    No ending inventory because “The direct material is added in Department 2 when conversion is 80% complete.” And this question is asking for direct material…

    New York - NYC
    Passed CPA Exam (11/2014)
    In search for a position in NYC that will fulfills the license requirement.

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