BEC Study Group Q2 2016 - Page 16

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  • #766254
    jonnybgood2321
    Participant

    A company uses a standard costing system. The productionbudget for year 1 was based on 200,000 units of output. Each unit requires twostandard hours of manufacturing labor for completion. Total overhead wasbudgeted at $900,000 for the year, and the budget fixed overhead rate was $1.50per DLHR. Both variable and fixed overheads are allocated to the product basedon DLHR. The actual data for year 1 are as follows:

    Actual production in units 198,000

    Actual DLHR 425,000

    Actual VOH $352,000

    Actual FOH $575,000

    AUD-PASS
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    #766255
    Bear-Bear
    Participant

    82 Trending and 74 Average. My work for tonight is done. 🙂

    #766256
    mtaylo24
    Participant

    @jonnybgood2321 – Gleim has that question too… Here is the explanation…

    Answer (A) is correct.
    The variable overhead efficiency variance is the difference between the standard hours allowed for actual production and the actual quantity of hours used, times the standard variable overhead (VOH) rate. In this case, the standard hours allowed for the actual production is 396,000 hours (198,000 units produced × 2 standard hours of manufacturing labor per unit). The total budgeted variable overhead cost for Year 1 is $300,000 [$900,000 total budgeted overhead costs – (200,000 × 2 × $1.50) total budgeted fixed overhead cost]. Thus, the VOH rate is $0.75 [$300,000 total budgeted variable overhead cost ÷ (200,000 × 2) total budgeted variable overhead hours]. The unfavorable variable overhead efficiency variance is $21,750 [(396,000 standard hours allowed for the actual production – 425,000 actual quantity of hours used) × $0.75 VOH rate].

    AUD - 1st - 60 (12/12), 61 (2/13), 61 (8/13), 78! (11/15)
    REG - 55 (2/16) 69 (5/16) Retake(8/16)
    BEC - 71(5/16) Retake (9/16)
    FAR - (8/16)

    #766257
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    Hey guys, please help me on this long problem for this topic – Strategic Planning. I understand the question and explanation. I am just lost with the two sentences below in all-caps:

    >>>>What did they mean by “CASH DEFICITS MUST BE MADE IN $10,000 INCREMENTS”.
    >>>>When “THERE IS NO OUTSTANDING BALANCE ON THE LINE OF CREDIT LOAN ON APRIL 1”, does it mean the LOC is full/maximized and there's no room to borrow some more money just like credit limit in a credit card?

    Thanks guy for your help!

    The Raymar Company is preparing its cash budget for the months of April and May. THE FIRM HAS ESTABLISHED A $200,000 LINE OF CREDIT WITH ITS BANK AT A 12 PERCENT ANNUAL RATE OF INTEREST ON WHICH BORROWINGS FOR CASH DEFICITS MUST BE MADE IN $10,000 INCREMENTS. THERE IS NO OUTSTANDING BALANCE ON THE LINE OF CREDIT LOAN ON APRIL 1. Principal repayments are to be made in any month in which there is a surplus of cash. Interest is to be paid monthly. If there are no outstanding balances on the loans, Raymar will invest any cash in excess of its desired end-of-month cash balance in U.S. Treasury bills. Raymar intends to maintain a minimum balance of $100,000 at the end of each month by either borrowing for deficits below the minimum balance or investing any excess cash.
    Monthly collection and disbursement patterns are expected to be the following:

    •Collections
    50% of the current month's sales budget and 50% of the previous month's sales budget.

    •Accounts Payable Disbursements
    75% of the current month's accounts payable budget and 25% of the previous month's accounts payable budget.

    •All other disbursements occur in the month in which they are budgeted.

    Budget Information

    March

    April

    May

    Sales $ 40,000 $ 50,000 $ 100,000

    Accounts payable 30,000 40,000 40,000

    Payroll 60,000 70,000 50,000

    Other disbursements 25,000 30,000 10,000

    In May, Raymar will be required to:

    a.
    Pay $900 interest.

    b.
    Borrow an additional $20,000 and pay $1,200 interest.

    c.
    Repay $20,000 principal and pay $1,000 interest.

    d.
    Borrow an additional $20,000 and pay $1,000 interest.

    Explanation

    Choice “d” is correct. In May, Raymar will need to borrow an additional $20,000 and pay $1,000 interest:

    Current month sales $ 50,000

    Previous months sales 25,000

    Acct. Payable – current (30,000)

    Acct. Payable – previous (10,000)

    Payroll (50,000)

    Other disbursements (10,000)

    Net cash flow (25,000)

    April cash flow (92,500)

    Total deficit $ (117,500)

    Prev borrowing 100,000

    Borrow in May 20,000

    Total borrowed $ 120,000

    Interest:

    $100,000 × 12% × 1/12 = $1,000

    Choices “c”, “a”, and “b” are incorrect based on the above explanation.

    #766258
    mtaylo24
    Participant

    Not sure if i have that one in my test bank…my strategic planning ch doesnt have math in it…i think when they say no balance it means you have all of your credit available (like a credit card) and i guess you can only draw 10k, $20k, 30k, etc from the LOC…No numbers in btw

    AUD - 1st - 60 (12/12), 61 (2/13), 61 (8/13), 78! (11/15)
    REG - 55 (2/16) 69 (5/16) Retake(8/16)
    BEC - 71(5/16) Retake (9/16)
    FAR - (8/16)

    #766259
    Larry
    Participant

    What an awful day. Don't know how to recover from this. Went from trending 75 to 73 and now down to 68!! What gives! This studying is stressing me out.

    REG - 82
    FAR - 78
    BEC - 76
    AUD - 8/27/16

    #766260
    Bear-Bear
    Participant

    @papogator24 – I went from 86 to 78 today, so I feel your pain. Ninja is wonderful for preparation (for the actual exam), but horrible for confidence (during the actual studying process), at least in my opinion. How far along are you?

    #766261
    cbecken
    Participant

    I'm with you. I am not feeling like this is the “easiest” section of the CPA exams. Ninja doesn't mess around which is just what I need. Studying smarter this go to get a Pass. Friday the 13th, let's go!

    FAR 51, 53
    REG 61
    AUD 58
    BEC 62

    #766262
    jessica8926
    Participant

    Literally it must be contagious! I am having the same problem today. Almost about to have a mental breakdown in the middle of starbucks. I just want to cry because for some reason I cannot wrap my head around these stupid formulas in Chapter 3 of Becker. But then of course when I see the answer it makes sense…..I hate this test

    AUD - 69, 77
    REG - 74, 81
    FAR - 75!
    BEC - 71, 82

    IL candidate!

    Finally done (5/24/16)!! Yahooooooo!

    #766263
    mtaylo24
    Participant

    Hell yeah. I'm on my second pass of the material and I'm caught on the annoying Forecasting Analysis chapter in Gleim with the stupid linear, regression crap. I have never had a boss ask me to use any of this shit. I'm averaging 2 questions an hour. SMH! I don't see how people call this the easy section!

    AUD - 1st - 60 (12/12), 61 (2/13), 61 (8/13), 78! (11/15)
    REG - 55 (2/16) 69 (5/16) Retake(8/16)
    BEC - 71(5/16) Retake (9/16)
    FAR - (8/16)

    #766264
    jonnybgood2321
    Participant

    An employee produces 100 units of product A, but can be switched to another line to produce 50 units of produce B, what is the opportunity cost?

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    #766265
    lolo
    Member

    Given the info provided and the assumption of equal circumstances. the 50 units of B is going to be the OC!

    The OC is always measured by amount of dollars rather than mere number of units! this is the case with contribution margin.

    My Nick name is sunshine, but the fact is I have not been in touch with it since I started this CPA exam! IT HURTS

    AUD - ✔ Passed Becker self study!
    BEC - ✔ Passed Becker self study!
    FAR - ✔ Passed Becker self study!
    REG - TBD

    #766266
    jonnybgood2321
    Participant

    I would recommend knowing units too, even though it makes no sense. Wouldn't the opportunity cost be the 100 units of A though?

    AUD-PASS
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    #766267
    lolo
    Member

    The opportunity cost is defined as the cost of foregoing the next best alternative, Given this is mere number of units I suppose they have same dollar amounts (same contribution margins). For that, the next best alternative would be the 50 units of B, but if B had higher total contribution margin compared to A, then the 100 units of A would be the OC!

    My Nick name is sunshine, but the fact is I have not been in touch with it since I started this CPA exam! IT HURTS

    AUD - ✔ Passed Becker self study!
    BEC - ✔ Passed Becker self study!
    FAR - ✔ Passed Becker self study!
    REG - TBD

    #766268
    jonnybgood2321
    Participant

    that's my logic as well but that's how this exam just throws you curve balls. I've seen a question just that simple. no mention of CM, and no mention of whether the products are similar products or if they have the same CM, nothing.

    This is how I figured it… probably wrong but, if the employee is currently producing product A, and switches to product B, the 100 units of product A is what the company would be giving up, and it would be the OC.

    AUD-PASS
    BEC-
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Viewing 15 replies - 226 through 240 (of 1,014 total)
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