An entity is examining potential investments and notes that 1‐year maturity yields are higher than those for 10‐year maturities. Which of the following explanations for this occurrence is best?
The short‐term investments have higher liquidity and therefore carry a higher rate of interest.
The short‐term investments carry a more immediate default risk premium resulting in higher rates of return.
The long‐term instruments provide a longer stream of investment income and therefore carry a lower rate of return.
Investors are expecting reduced inflation in the future as reflected in the lower long‐term returns.
Answer: D. Can someone please explain why the answer is D and not B? To me it just seems obvious that the answer is B. I figured if an investment carries more risk, then interest would be higher.