I'm working on B4 homework and I really need help with the following problem:
For the next 2 years, a lease is estimated to have an operating net cash inflow of $7,500 per annum, before adjusting for $ 5,000 per annum tax basis lease amortization, and a 40% tax rate. The present value of an ordinary annuity of $1 per year at 10% for 2 years is $ 1.74. What is the lease's after-tax present value using a 10% discount factor?
The answer is $11,310
Explanation is: present value is based on the cash flows of an activity. Amortization is a non-cash expense that is considered only for its tax shield, therefore, the only relevant amounts are the $7,500 operating net cash inflow and the tax paid.
PV of cash inflow=7,500*1.74=13,050
PV of cash outflow for tax =(7,500-5,000)*40%*1.74=1,740
After-tax PV=13,050-1,740=11,310
When I do the calculation, I calculate PV of cash inflow=7,500*(1-40%)*1.74. I don't understand why using pre-tax inflow.
Thank you!
I Can Do This!!!!!
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