Thank you, in that case why would (c) be considered a wrong answer in the below question?
A CPA firm is auditing a client that sells merchandise on credit to a wide variety customers. Last year the accounts receivable turnover ratio was 5.9 but this year it has fallen to 4.1. The auditor is concerned by the significance of that change and hopes to find a logical explanation. Which of the following is most likely to explain the cause of that change?
A) The company has dropped its sales prices but shortened the length of time a customer is given to pay before a late charge is assessed.
B) The company accountant has fraudulently tried to boost reported net income by denoting inventory and crediting sales when no transaction took place.
C) The company is making a higher percentage of it's sales for cash
C) The company started making sales on consignment this year and recording those transactions as credit sales at the time of shipment to consigned although no cash has yet been collected.
The answer is (d) because both sales and a/r are incorrectly inflated since a consignment sale does not occur at the time of shipment but only when the goods are actually sold by the consignee.
This is understood, but I think (c) can also be an answer since both the credit sales and a/r would be impacted negatively.
October 2011-May 2013. Did not loose any credit!!
AUD - 73, 79
REG - 86
FAR - 72, 83
BEC - 80, last one, DONE!!