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Can anyone help me understand this?
An auditor discovered that a client’s accounts receivable turnover is substantially lower for the current year than for the prior year. This may indicate that:
A. fictitious credit sales have been recorded during the year.
B. employees have stolen inventory just before the year-end.
C. the client recently tightened its credit-granting policies.
D. an employee has been lapping receivables in both years.
Answer: A. Accounts receivable turnover is affected by the balance in accounts receivable, so fictitious credit sales could be the cause. The other answer choices would not cause the turnover ratio to decrease.
If fictitious sales were recorded, the net credit sales (numerator) would increase. Since the sales are not real, the ending accounts receivable balance would also be higher than normal. These “fake” receivables are also not being repaid. This in turn, means that the average receivables (denominator) would get larger. This would in all likelihood result in a lower receivable turnover ratio.
I tried to figure this one out using hypothetical numbers and everything I did came up with a higher ratio instead of a lower one.
Net Credit Sales/ ((CY AR+ PY AR)/2) I used starting point of $200 sales/ ((400 CY AR+ 600 PY AR)/2)= 2/5
Fake sales recorded of $300 increases sales and CY AR $500/ ((700 + 600)/2) = 5/6
What am I missing?
AUD- 95
FAR- 75
BEC- 83
REG- 85Officially done! Exclusively used NINJA for BEC, REG, and FAR
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