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I was reading the note and I don’t understand the following statement:
“When control risk is assessed to be at maximum, no internal control testing is performed;
When control risk is below maximum, test internal control and evaluate control risk based on tests.”
My question is, if control risk is at maximum, is that means there is a high risk that the internal control will not detect fraud/error? And why no internal control testing will be necessary?
Could someone clarify that? Thanks in advance!
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