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Need clarification: This is from a Becker question BTW
For non-independent accountants issuing compilation reports, it says this: Practitioners have the option, but are not required, to disclose the reasons for an independence impairment in the report. If the disclosure is made, then all reasons for independence impairment must be presented.
*** If practitioners must disclose lack of independence, and also have the option (but are not required) to disclose the reasons for their lack of independence, then how can it also be that they are required to reveal all reasons for not being independent? This seems like a contradiction. Maybe I am reading it wrong…. maybe it means that if you start explaining your lack of independence, then you have to explain it thoroughly, as in 100% or 0% explanation….. but I have no idea, because of the way it’s worded. ****
Does anybody grasp this concept, and see what I’m missing?
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